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Alberta Regulation 202/2006
Government Organization Act
ABORIGINAL AFFAIRS AND NORTHERN DEVELOPMENT 
GRANT AMENDMENT REGULATION
Filed: August 23, 2006
For information only:   Made by the Lieutenant Governor in Council (O.C. 380/2006) 
on August 23, 2006 pursuant to section 13 of the Government Organization Act. 
1   The Aboriginal Affairs and Northern Development Grant 
Regulation (AR 4/2002) is amended by this Regulation.

2   Section 11 is amended by striking out "2006" and 
substituting "2016".


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Alberta Regulation 203/2006
Government Organization Act
INTERNATIONAL AND INTERGOVERNMENTAL RELATIONS 
GRANT AMENDMENT REGULATION
Filed: August 23, 2006
For information only:   Made by the Lieutenant Governor in Council (O.C. 389/2006) 
on August 23, 2006 pursuant to section 13 of the Government Organization Act. 
1   The International and Intergovernmental Relations Grant 
Regulation (AR 5/2002) is amended by this Regulation.

2   Section 11 is amended by striking out "2006" and 
substituting "2016".



Alberta Regulation 204/2006
Securities Act
SECURITIES AMENDMENT REGULATION
Filed: August 23, 2006
For information only:   Made by the Lieutenant Governor in Council (O.C. 392/2006) 
on August 23, 2006 pursuant to section 223 of the Securities Act. 
1   The Securities Regulation (AR 115/95) is amended by 
this Regulation.
Part 1 
Fee Changes Effective October 1, 2006
2   The Schedule is amended


	(a)	in section 2(a) by striking out "$1000" and 
substituting "$1080";
	(b)	in section 2(b) and (c) by striking out "$250" and 
substituting "$270";
	(c)	in section 3(1) by striking out "$1000" wherever it 
occurs and substituting "$1080";
	(d)	in section 5(1) and (2) by striking out "$100" 
wherever it occurs and substituting "$108";
	(e)	in section 6(1) and (2)(b) by striking out "$500" and 
substituting "$540";
	(f)	in section 9(1)(a) by striking out "$2000" and 
substituting "$2160";
	(g)	in section 9(1)(b) by striking out "$250" and 
substituting "$270";
	(h)	in section 10(1) by striking out "$1000" and 
substituting "$1080";
	(i)	in section 10(2) by striking out "$500" and 
substituting "$540";
	(j)	in section 10(3) by striking out "$250" and 
substituting "$270";
	(k)	in section 14(3) by striking out "$300" and 
substituting "$500";
	(l)	in section 15(1)
	(i)	by striking out "$300" and substituting "$500", 
and
	(ii)	by striking out "151 or";
	(m)	by repealing section 15(2);
	(n)	in section 16 by striking out "$150" and substituting 
"$500".
Part 2 
Fee Changes Effective April 1, 2007
3   The Schedule is amended
	(a)	in section 2(a) by striking out "$1080" and 
substituting "$1150";
	(b)	in section 2(b) and (c) by striking out "$270" and 
substituting "$288";
	(c)	in section 3(1) by striking out "$1080" wherever it 
occurs and substituting "$1150";
	(d)	in section 5(1) and (2) by striking out "$108" 
wherever it occurs and substituting "$115";
	(e)	in section 6(1) by striking out "$540" and 
substituting "$575";
	(f)	in section 9(1)(a) by striking out "$2160" and 
substituting "$2280";
	(g)	in section 9(1)(b) by striking out "$270" and 
substituting "$288";
	(h)	in section 10(1) by striking out "$1080" and 
substituting "$1150";
	(i)	in section 10(2) by striking out "$540" and 
substituting "$575";
	(j)	in section 10(3) by striking out "$270" and 
substituting "$288";
	(k)	in section 14 by striking out "$500" wherever it 
occurs and substituting "$650";
	(l)	in section 15(1) by striking out "$500" and 
substituting "$650";
	(m)	in section 16 by striking out "$500" and substituting 
"$650".
Part 3 
Fee Changes Effective April 1, 2008
4   The Schedule is amended
	(a)	in section 2(a) by striking out "$1150" and 
substituting "$1200";
	(b)	in section 2(b) and (c) by striking out "$288" and 
substituting "$300";
	(c)	in section 3(1) by striking out "$1150"  wherever it 
occurs and substituting "$1200";
	(d)	in section 5(1) and (2) by striking out "$115" 
wherever it occurs and substituting "$120";
	(e)	in section 6(1) by striking out "$575" and 
substituting "$600";
	(f)	in section 9(1)(a) by striking out "$2280" and 
substituting "$2400";
	(g)	in section 9(1)(b) by striking out "$288" and 
substituting "$300";
	(h)	in section 10(1) by striking out "$1150" and 
substituting "$1200";
	(i)	in section 10(2) by striking out "$575" and 
substituting "$600";
	(j)	in section 10(3) by striking out "$288" and 
substituting "$300";
	(k)	in section 14 by striking out "$650" wherever it 
occurs and substituting "$750";
	(l)	in section 15(1) by striking out "$650" and 
substituting "$750";
	(m)	in section 16 by striking out "$650" and substituting 
"$750".
Part 4 
Coming into Force Provision
5(1)  Part 1 comes into force on October 1, 2006.
(2)  Part 2 comes into force on April 1, 2007.
(3)  Part 3 comes into force on April 1, 2008.


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Alberta Regulation 205/2006
Mines and Minerals Act
HORIZONTAL RE-ENTRY WELL ROYALTY REDUCTION 
AMENDMENT REGULATION
Filed: August 23, 2006
For information only:   Made by the Lieutenant Governor in Council (O.C. 397/2006) 
on August 23, 2006 pursuant to sections 5 and 36 of the Mines and Minerals Act. 
1   The Horizontal Re-entry Well Royalty Reduction 
Regulation (AR 348/92) is amended by this Regulation.

2   Section 1 is amended
	(a)	by renumbering it as section 1(1);
	(b)	in subsection (1)
	(i)	in clause (a) by adding "or the Alberta Energy and 
Utilities Board" after "Conservation Board";
	(ii)	in clause (b)
	(A)	by striking out "payable" and substituting 
"reserved to the Crown";
	(B)	by adding "or" after subclause (i), striking 
out "and" at the end of subclause (ii) and 
repealing subclause (iii);
	(iii)	by repealing clauses (c), (d) and (e) and 
substituting the following:
	(c)	"Crown interest", in respect of a well or well event 
for any period, means
	(i)	in the case of a well or well event that is 
subject to a unit agreement, a unit operation 
order or an order of the Board under section 
80 or 81 of the Oil and Gas Conservation 
Act, the percentage of any production 
obtained during the period from the area 
subject to that agreement or order that would 
be allocated pursuant to the agreement or 
order to all the Crown tracts in that area, or
	(ii)	in the case of a well or well event that is not 
referred to in subclause (i), the percentage of 
the area of the production entity, as defined in 
the Petroleum Royalty Regulation, containing 
the well or well event that consists of one or 
more Crown tracts;
	(d)	"Crown production", in respect of crude oil or oil 
sands obtained from a well or well event in a 
period, means the total production of crude oil or 
oil sands from the well or well event in the period 
multiplied by the Crown interest for the well or 
well event for the period;
	(d.1)	"Crown tract" means the whole or part of a 
location;
	(e)	"eligible oil" means crude oil or oil sands that is 
determined to be eligible oil under section 1.1;
	(iv)	in clause (g) by adding "and before November 1, 
2006" after "September 30, 1992";
	(v)	by repealing clause (h);
	(vi)	by repealing clause (i)(i) and substituting the 
following:
	(i)	that is in whole or in part within the area enclosed 
by a scheme boundary or less than 0.8 kilometres 
from a scheme boundary, unless the Minister has 
made a declaration in respect of the well under 
section 1.2, or
	(vii)	by adding the following after clause (n):
	(n.1)	"oil sands well event" means a well event that is 
part of an oil sands well;
	(viii)	by adding the following after clause (o):
	(o.1)	"oil well event" means a well event that is part of 
an oil well;
	(o.2)	"operator", in respect of a well, means the person 
who is the operator of the well according to the 
records of the Department;
	(ix)	by adding the following after clause (p):
	(p.1)	"production month", in respect of a well, means a 
month in which crude oil or oil sands is obtained 
from the well;
	(x)	by adding the following after clause (s):
	(t)	"well event" means
	(i)	a part of a well completed in a zone and given 
a unique well identifier by the Board,
	(ii)	parts of a well completed in 2 or more zones 
and given a single unique well identifier by 
the Board,
	(iii)	a part of a well completed in and recovering 
crude oil or oil sands from a zone but which 
has not yet been given a unique well 
identifier by the Board, or
	(iv)	parts of a well completed in and recovering 
crude oil or oil sands from 2 or more zones 
during the period when the parts are 
considered by the Minister as a single well 
event for the purposes of this Regulation and 
before the Board makes a decision whether or 
not to give the parts a single unique well 
identifier.
	(c)	by adding the following after subsection (1):
(2)  A reference in this Regulation to a month, whether by its 
name or not, shall be construed as the period commencing at 
7:00 a.m. Mountain Standard Time on the first day of the 
month and ending immediately before 7:00 a.m. Mountain 
Standard Time on the first day of the next month.

3   The following is added after section 1:
Eligible oil
1.1   Crude oil or oil sands is eligible oil if it is obtained
	(a)	from a horizontal extension of an eligible well,
	(b)	from an oil well event or oil sands well event that meets 
all of the following requirements:
	(i)	the well event is part of the horizontal extension 
referred to in clause (a);
	(ii)	the Crown interest in the well event is greater than 
0%;
	(iii)	any crude oil or oil sands obtained from the well 
event is subject to the payment of royalty under the 
Petroleum Royalty Regulation or the Oil Sands 
Royalty Regulation, 1984,
	(c)	from a qualifying pool, and
	(d)	in segregation from crude oil or oil sands obtained from 
any other pool or oil sands deposit that is penetrated by 
the well referred to in clause (a).
Declaration that well not ineligible well
1.2(1)  The Minister may, by order, declare that a well that is in 
whole or in part within the area enclosed by the scheme boundary 
of a scheme or less than 0.8 kilometres from the scheme boundary 
of a scheme is not an ineligible well if
	(a)	the Board has cancelled its requirement for or approval 
of the scheme under section 38 or 39, respectively, of 
the Oil and Gas Conservation Act, or
	(b)	the t-factor for the scheme, if any, for the purposes of 
the Enhanced Recovery of Oil Royalty Reduction 
Regulation (AR 348/93) is zero.
(2)  An order by the Minister under subsection (1) may be made 
effective on a date earlier than the date the order is made, but may 
not be effective in respect of any period of time for which the 
Minister's power under section 38 of the Act to recalculate or 
make additional calculations of the Crown's royalty share of a 
mineral has expired.

4   Section 2 is amended
	(a)	in subsection (1) by adding "maintenance" before 
"production month";
	(b)	in subsection (2) by striking out "in each of the latest 
12 production months" and substituting "in the latest 12 
maintenance production months";
	(c)	in subsection (4) by striking out "each of".

5   Section 3 is amended
	(a)	in clauses (a) and (b)(i) by striking out "Crown interest 
in the eligible oil" and substituting "Crown interest in the 
well event from which the eligible oil is obtained";
	(b)	in clause (b)(iii)
	(i)	by adding "in the month" after "for that well";
	(ii)	by striking out "Crown interest in the eligible oil 
obtained in the month" and substituting "Crown 
interest in the well event from which the eligible oil is 
obtained".

6   Section 4(2) is repealed and the following is substituted:
(2)  No declaration may be issued unless the operator of the 
eligible well or the holder of a licence issued for the eligible well 
under the Oil and Gas Conservation Act or the Oil Sands 
Conservation Act applies to the Minister for the declaration.

7   Section 5 is amended in subsections (1) and (2)
	(a)	by striking out ", the Horizontal Well Petroleum Royalty 
Regulation";
	(b)	by striking out "month" and substituting "production 
month occurring prior to September 1, 2012".

8   Section 6 is repealed and the following is substituted:
Termination of royalty reduction
6(1)  A royalty reduction in respect of an eligible well terminates
	(a)	at the beginning of the month in which a royalty reduction 
under the Low Productivity Well Royalty Reduction 
Regulation (AR 350/92) applies to crude oil or oil sands 
obtained from the well, unless the royalty reduction for the 
well under that Regulation is wholly revoked under section 7 
of that Regulation,
	(b)	at the beginning of the month in which the well becomes a 
reactivated well under the Reactivated Well Royalty 
Exemption Regulation (AR 352/92), unless the royalty 
exemption in respect of the well under that regulation is 
wholly revoked under section 7 of that Regulation,
	(c)	at the beginning of the month in which the well becomes an 
ineligible well,
	(d)	at the beginning of the month after the month in which the 
well is abandoned,
	(e)	on August 31, 2007, if on or before that date the value of the 
royalty reduction for the well determined under subsection 
(2) exceeds the maximum value determined for the well 
under subsection (4), or
	(f)	when the value of the royalty reduction for the well 
determined under subsection (2) exceeds the maximum value 
determined for the well under subsection (4), if that occurs 
after August 31, 2007.
(2)  The value of the royalty reduction for an eligible well for the 
purposes of subsection (1)(e) and (f) is the aggregate of the 
amounts determined under subsection (3).
(3)  For each month that a royalty is reduced in respect of a well 
pursuant to section 5, the Minister shall determine the value of the 
royalty reduction for that month by
	(a)	subtracting the reduced royalty from the conventional royalty 
that would otherwise have been payable in respect of the 
production from the well for that month, and
	(b)	multiplying the difference obtained under clause (a) by the 
par price prescribed under section 1.1(4) of the Petroleum 
Royalty Regulation for that month that would otherwise have 
applied to the calculation of the conventional royalty on 
production from the well for that month.
(4)  The maximum value for the purposes of subsection (1)(e) and 
(f) of a well is the product of $900 000 multiplied by the Crown 
interest for the well for the first production month in which a 
royalty reduction applied in respect of the well.

9   Section 7(1) is amended by striking out "or" at the end of 
clause (d) and adding the following after clause (d):
	(d.1)	compliance with section 47(6) of the Act in connection 
with an audit or examination relating to a royalty 
reduction in respect of a well has been inadequate, or

10   The following is added after section 7:
Request to revoke declaration
7.1(1)  The Minister may wholly revoke a declaration issued in 
respect of an eligible well on receiving a written request to do so 
from the operator of the well or the holder of a licence issued for 
the well under the Oil and Gas Conservation Act or the Oil Sands 
Conservation Act.
(2)  A written request under subsection (1) must be received by the 
Minister within 6 months after the end of the month in which the 
declaration in respect of eligible oil obtained from the well is 
effective.
(3)  If the Minister revokes a declaration under subsection (1), 
Crown royalty on the eligible oil obtained from the well is 
calculated as if entitlement to the royalty reduction never arose.
Reinstatement of declaration
7.2(1)  If the Minister considers it appropriate to do so, the 
Minister may reinstate a declaration that was revoked wholly or in 
part under section 7 or 7.1.
(2)  If the Minister reinstates a declaration under subsection (1) in 
respect of an eligible well, royalty on the eligible oil obtained from 
the well is calculated as if the declaration was never revoked.
(3)  A reinstatement made by the Minister under subsection (1) 
may be made effective on a date earlier than the date the 
reinstatement is made, but may not be effective in respect of any 
period of time for which the Minister's power under section 38 of 
the Act to recalculate or make additional calculations of the 
Crown's royalty share of a mineral has expired.
Limit on royalty adjustments
7.3   Despite any other provisions of this Regulation, oil obtained 
from an oil well or oil sands obtained from an oil sands well does 
not qualify for a royalty reduction under this Regulation in any 
month in which any of the following royalty adjustments have 
been made in respect of the oil or oil sands:
	(a)	the royalty reduction provided for in the Low Productivity 
Well Royalty Reduction Regulation (AR 350/92);
	(b)	the royalty exemption provided for in the Reactivated Well 
Royalty Exemption Regulation (AR 352/92);
	(c)	the royalty exemption provided for in the Third Tier 
Exploratory Well Royalty Exemption Regulation (AR 16/93).

11   Section 8 is repealed and the following is substituted:
Additional information
8   For the purposes of administering this Regulation or evaluating, 
formulating or administering the policies and programs of the 
Department regarding royalties, the Minister may at any time 
request in writing that an applicant under section 4, a holder of a 
licence issued for an eligible well under the Oil and Gas 
Conservation Act or the Oil Sands Conservation Act, or the 
operator of an eligible well, or any of them, provide the Minister 
with the information respecting the eligible well or a horizontal 
extension of the eligible well, including information respecting the 
cost of recovering crude oil or oil sands from the horizontal 
extension.

12   Section 10 is repealed and the following is substituted:
Expiry
10   This Regulation expires on December 31, 2017.


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Alberta Regulation 206/2006
Mines and Minerals Act
LOW PRODUCTIVITY WELL ROYALTY REDUCTION 
AMENDMENT REGULATION
Filed: August 23, 2006
For information only:   Made by the Lieutenant Governor in Council (O.C. 398/2006) 
on August 23, 2006 pursuant to sections 5 and 36 of the Mines and Minerals Act. 
1   The Low Productivity Well Royalty Reduction Regulation 
(AR 350/92) is amended by this Regulation.

2   Section 1 is amended
	(a)	by renumbering it as section 1(1);
	(b)	in subsection (1)
	(i)	in clause (a) by adding "or the Alberta Energy and 
Utilities Board" after "Conservation Board";
	(ii)	in clause (b) by striking out "payable" and 
substituting "reserved to the Crown";
	(iii)	by adding the following after clause (b):
	(b.1)	"Crown interest", in respect of a well or well event 
for any period, means
	(i)	in the case of a well or well event that is 
subject to a unit agreement, a unit operation 
order or an order of the Board under section 
80 or 81 of the Oil and Gas Conservation 
Act, the percentage of any production 
obtained during the period from the area 
subject to that agreement or order that would 
be allocated pursuant to the agreement or 
order to all the Crown tracts in that area, or
	(ii)	in the case of a well or well event that is not 
referred to in subclause (i), the percentage of 
the area of the production entity, as defined in 
the Petroleum Royalty Regulation, containing 
the well or well event that consists of one or 
more Crown tracts;
	(iv)	by repealing clause (c) and substituting the 
following:
	(c)	"Crown production", in respect of crude oil or oil 
sands obtained from a well or well event in a 
period, means the total production of crude oil or 
oil sands from the well or well event in the period 
multiplied by the Crown interest for the well or 
well event for the period;
	(v)	by adding the following after clause (c):
	(c.1)	"Crown tract" means the whole or part of a 
location;
	(vi)	by repealing clause (d) and substituting the 
following:
	(d)	"eligible oil" means crude oil or oil sands that is 
determined to be eligible oil under section 2.1;
	(vii)	by repealing subclause (f)(i) and substituting 
the following:
	(i)	that is in whole or in part within the area enclosed 
by a scheme boundary or less than 0.8 kilometres 
from a scheme boundary, unless the Minister has 
made a declaration in respect of the well under 
section 2.2, or
	(viii)	by adding the following after clause (i):
	(i.1)	"oil sands well event" means a well event that is 
part of an oil sands well;
	(ix)	by adding the following after clause (j):
	(j.1)	"oil well event" means a well event that is part of 
an oil well;
	(j.2)	"operator", in respect of a well, means the person 
who is the operator of the well according to the 
records of the Department;
	(x)	by adding the following after clause (k):
	(k.1)	"production month", in respect of a well, means a 
month in which crude oil or oil sands is obtained 
from the well;
	(xi)	by repealing clause (l) and substituting the 
following:
	(l)	"qualifying period", in respect of a well, means 
period of 24 consecutive months during which the 
requirements of section 2(a) to (d) are satisfied in 
respect of the well;
	(xii)	by adding the following after clause (n):
	(o)	"threshold quantity", in respect of a low 
productivity well for a production month, means 
the threshold quantity determined for the well for 
that month under the Schedule;
	(p)	"well event" means
	(i)	a part of a well completed in a zone and given 
a unique well identifier by the Board,
	(ii)	parts of a well completed in 2 or more zones 
and given a single unique well identifier by 
the Board,
	(iii)	a part of a well completed in and recovering 
crude oil or oil sands from a zone but which 
has not yet been given a unique well 
identifier by the Board, or
	(iv)	parts of a well completed in and recovering 
crude oil or oil sands from 2 or more zones 
during the period when the parts are 
considered by the Minister as a single well 
event for the purposes of this Regulation and 
before the Board makes a decision whether or 
not to give the parts a single unique well 
identifier.
	(c)	by adding the following after subsection (1):
(2)  A reference in this Regulation to a month, whether by its 
name or not, shall be construed as the period commencing at 
7:00 a.m. Mountain Standard Time on the first day of the 
month and ending immediately before 7:00 a.m. Mountain 
Standard Time on the first day of the next month.

3   Section 2 is repealed and the following is substituted:
Low productivity well
2   An oil well or oil sands well is a low productivity well if it 
meets all of the following requirements:
	(a)	in a period of 24 consecutive months ending after 
December 1992, the well
	(i)	does not in any month of the period produce more 
than 121 m3 of crude oil or oil sands, not including 
excluded production, and
	(ii)	produces crude oil or oil sands in at least 6 months 
of the period;
	(b)	in the last 6 production months of the 24-month period 
referred to in clause (a), the well does not produce an 
average of more than 73 m3 per month of crude oil or oil 
sands, not including excluded production;
	(c)	no royalty reduction is made in respect of the well 
during the 24-month period referred to in clause (a);
	(d)	any royalty reduction made in respect of the well before 
the 24-month period referred to in clause (a) was wholly 
revoked under section 6 or 7 before the commencement 
of that period and has not been reinstated under section 
8.1;
	(e)	the well is not an ineligible well.

4   The following is added after section 2:
Eligible oil
2.1(1)  Crude oil or oil sands that is not excluded production is 
eligible oil if it is obtained from a low productivity well
	(a)	after the well's qualifying period,
	(b)	from an eligible well event,
	(c)	from a pool or oil sands deposit penetrated by the well 
before the end of the well's qualifying period, and
	(d)	in segregation from crude oil or oil sands obtained from 
a pool or oil sands deposit penetrated by the well after 
the end of the well's qualifying period if that pool or 
deposit is deeper than the pool or deposit referred to in 
clause (c).
(2)  An oil well event or oil sands well event is an eligible well 
event for the purposes of this section if all of the following apply:
	(a)	the well event is part of a low productivity well and was 
an oil well event or oil sands well event throughout the 
well's qualifying period;
	(b)	the Crown interest in the well event was greater than 
0% in the last month of the well's qualifying period or 
the Minister has made an order under subsection (3) 
declaring that this requirement has been waived;
	(c)	if crude oil or oil sands had been obtained from the well 
event in the last month of the well's qualifying period, 
that crude oil or oil sands would have been subject to 
the payment of royalty under the Petroleum Royalty 
Regulation or the Oil Sands Royalty Regulation, 1984.
(3)  The Minister may, by order, declare that the requirement in 
subsection (2)(b) has been waived in respect of an oil well event or 
oil sands well event if the only reason the well event does not meet 
that requirement is undue delay on the part of the Minister to enter 
into a unit agreement that provides for a Crown interest for the 
well event that is greater than 0%.
(4)  An order by the Minister under subsection (3) may be made 
effective on a date earlier than the date the order is made, but may 
not be effective in respect of any period of time for which the 
Minister's power under section 38 of the Act to recalculate or 
make additional calculations of the Crown's royalty share of a 
mineral has expired.
Declaration that well not ineligible well
2.2(1)  The Minister may, by order, declare that a well that is in 
whole or in part within the area enclosed by the scheme boundary 
of a scheme or less than 0.8 kilometres from the scheme boundary 
of a scheme is not an ineligible well if
	(a)	the Board has cancelled its requirement for or approval 
of the scheme under section 38 or 39, respectively, of 
the Oil and Gas Conservation Act, or
	(b)	the t-factor for the scheme, if any, for the purposes of 
the Enhanced Recovery of Oil Royalty Reduction 
Regulation (AR 348/93) is zero.
(2)  An order by the Minister under subsection (1) may be made 
effective on a date earlier than the date the order is made, but may 
not be effective in respect of any period of time for which the 
Minister's power under section 38 of the Act to recalculate or 
make additional calculations of the Crown's royalty share of a 
mineral has expired.

5   Section 3 is amended
	(a)	in subsection (1) by striking out "month" and 
substituting "production month occurring prior to 
September 1, 2007";
	(b)	by repealing subsection (3) and substituting the 
following:
(3)  If the quantity of eligible oil obtained from a low 
productivity well in a production month occurring after August 
31, 2007 is greater than the threshold quantity for the well for 
that production month, the royalty reserved to the Crown under 
the Petroleum Royalty Regulation or the Oil Sands Royalty 
Regulation, 1984 in respect of that eligible oil is reduced to the 
portion of that eligible oil that is determined under subsection 
(4).
(4)  For the purposes of subsection (3), the portion of eligible oil 
for a production month is the amount obtained by
	(a)	determining the conventional royalty that would be 
reserved to the Crown if the threshold quantity was 
obtained from the well in the production month,
	(b)	dividing the amount determined under clause (a) by the 
product obtained by multiplying the threshold quantity 
for the well for the production month by the Crown 
interest for the well for the production month, and
	(c)	multiplying the quotient determined under clause (b) by 
the actual quantity of eligible oil obtained from the well 
in the production month.

6   Section 4 is amended
	(a)	by renumbering it as section 4(1);
	(b)	in subsection (1)
	(i)	in clause (b) by striking out "an approval of a 
horizontal extension of the well under the Horizontal 
Well Petroleum Royalty Regulation (Alta. Reg. 96/91) 
or";
	(ii)	by striking out "or" at the end of clause (c);
	(iii)	by adding the following after clause (d):
	(e)	when 16 000 m3 of eligible oil has been obtained 
from the well, if that quantity of eligible oil is 
obtained from the well before September 1, 2007,
	(f)	on August 31, 2007, if on or before that date the 
value of the royalty reduction for the well 
determined under subsection (2) exceeds the 
maximum value determined for the well under 
subsection (4), or
	(g)	when the value of the royalty reduction for the 
well determined under subsection (2) exceeds the 
maximum value determined for the well under 
subsection (4), if that occurs after August 31, 
2007.
	(c)	by adding the following after subsection (1):
(2)  The aggregate of the amounts determined under subsection 
(3) for a low productivity well is the value of the royalty 
reduction for the well for the purposes of subsection (1)(f) and 
(g).
(3)  Each month that a royalty is reduced in respect of a well 
pursuant to section 3 the Minister shall determine the value of 
the royalty reduction for that month by
	(a)	subtracting the reduced royalty from the conventional 
royalty that would otherwise have been payable in 
respect of the production from the well for that month, 
and
	(b)	multiplying the difference obtained under clause (a) by 
the par price prescribed under section 1.1(4) of the 
Petroleum Royalty Regulation for that month that would 
otherwise have applied to the calculation of the 
conventional royalty on production from the well for 
that month.
(4)  The maximum value for the purposes of subsection (1)(f) 
and (g) of a low productivity well is the product of $50 000 
multiplied by the Crown interest for the well for the first 
production month after the qualifying period for the well.

7   Section 5 is amended by striking out "and" at the end of 
clause (a), adding ", and" at the end of clause (b) and by 
adding the following after clause (b):
	(c)	the number of hours over which the substance is obtained is 
consistent with a test of the well.

8   Section 6 is amended
	(a)	by striking out "121 m3 per month" wherever it occurs 
and substituting "the threshold quantity for the well";
	(b)	by striking out "or" at the end of clause (d) and 
adding the following after clause (d):
	(d.1)	compliance with section 47(6) of the Act in connection 
with an audit or examination relating to a royalty 
reduction in respect of a well has been inadequate, or

9   Section 7 is amended
	(a)	by repealing subsection (1) and substituting the 
following:
Request to revoke royalty reduction
7(1)  The Minister may wholly revoke a royalty reduction in 
respect of eligible oil obtained from a low productivity well on 
receiving a written request to do so from the operator of the 
well.
	(b)	in subsection (2) by striking out "the well" and 
substituting "eligible oil obtained from the well".

10   The following is added after section 8:
Reinstatement of royalty reduction
8.1(1)  If the Minister considers it appropriate to do so, the 
Minister may reinstate a royalty reduction that was revoked wholly 
or in part under section 6 or 7.
(2)  If the Minister reinstates a royalty reduction under subsection 
(1) in respect of a low productivity well, royalty on the eligible oil 
obtained from the well is calculated as if entitlement to the 
reduction was never revoked.
(3)  A reinstatement made by the Minister under subsection (1) 
may be made effective on a date earlier than the date the 
reinstatement is made, but may not be effective in respect of any 
period of time for which the Minister's power under section 38 of 
the Act to recalculate or make additional calculations of the 
Crown's royalty share of a mineral has expired.
Limit on royalty adjustments
8.2   Despite any other provisions of this Regulation, oil obtained 
from an oil well or oil sands obtained from an oil sands well does 
not qualify for a royalty reduction under this Regulation in any 
month in which any of the following royalty adjustments have 
been made in respect of the oil or oil sands:
	(a)	the royalty reduction provided for in the Horizontal 
Re-entry Well Royalty Reduction Regulation 
(AR 348/92);
	(b)	the royalty exemption provided for in the Reactivated 
Well Royalty Exemption Regulation (AR 352/92);
	(c)	the royalty exemption provided for in the Third Tier 
Exploratory Well Royalty Exemption Regulation 
(AR 16/93).

11   Section 10 is repealed and the following is substituted:
Expiry
10   For the purpose of ensuring that this Regulation is reviewed 
for ongoing relevancy and necessity, with the option that it may be 
repassed in its present or an amended form following a review, this 
Regulation expires on September 1, 2012.

12   The following Schedule is added at the end of the 
Regulation:
Schedule 
 
Threshold Quantity
1   For the purposes of section 2 of this Schedule, the average 
production rate of a low productivity well is the lowest average 
amount of crude oil per production month, other than excluded 
production, determined by the Minister to have been obtained from 
the well based on the following periods of production months that 
apply:
	(a)	the last 6 production months occurring during the 
qualifying period for the well;
	(b)	every period of 6 consecutive production months that 
follows the qualifying period for the well and precedes 
the production month referred to in section 2 of this 
Schedule.
2   The threshold quantity for a low productivity well for a 
production month is the quantity of crude oil indicated in the 
Threshold Quantity column of the following Table that 
corresponds to the production range in the Production Range 
column of the Table within which the average production rate of 
the well determined under section 1 of this Schedule falls:
Table
Production Range
Threshold Quantity
24 m3 per month or less
24 m3
>24 m3 and < or = 47 m3 per month
47 m3
>47 m3 and < or = 73 m3 per month
73 m3



Alberta Regulation 207/2006
Mines and Minerals Act
REACTIVATED WELL ROYALTY EXEMPTION 
AMENDMENT REGULATION
Filed: August 23, 2006
For information only:   Made by the Lieutenant Governor in Council (O.C. 399/2006) 
on August 23, 2006 pursuant to sections 5 and 36 of the Mines and Minerals Act. 
1   The Reactivated Well Royalty Exemption Regulation 
(AR 352/92) is amended by this Regulation.



2   Section 1 is amended
	(a)	by renumbering it as section 1(1);
	(b)	in subsection (1)
	(i)	in clause (a) by adding "or the Alberta Energy and 
Utilities Board" after "Conservation Board";
	(ii)	by adding the following after clause (a):
	(a.1)	"Crown interest", in respect of a well or well event 
for any period, means
	(i)	in the case of a well or well event that is 
subject to a unit agreement, a unit operation 
order or an order of the Board under section 
80 or 81 of the Oil and Gas Conservation 
Act, the percentage of any production 
obtained during the period from the area 
subject to that agreement or order that would 
be allocated pursuant to the agreement or 
order to all the Crown tracts in that area, or
	(ii)	in the case of a well or well event that is not 
referred to in subclause (i), the percentage of 
the area of the production entity, as defined in 
the Petroleum Royalty Regulation 
(AR 248/90), containing the well or well 
event that consists of one or more Crown 
tracts;
	(a.2)	"Crown production", in respect of crude oil or oil 
sands obtained from a well or well event in a 
period, means the total production of crude oil or 
oil sands from the well or well event in the period 
multiplied by the Crown interest for the well or 
well event for the period;
	(a.3)	"Crown tract" means the whole or part of a 
location;
	(iii)	by repealing clause (b) and substituting the 
following:
	(b)	"eligible oil" means crude oil or oil sands that is 
determined to be eligible oil under section 2.1;
	(iv)	by repealing clause (e)(i) and substituting the 
following:
	(i)	that is in whole or in part within the area enclosed 
by a scheme boundary or less than 0.8 kilometres 
from a scheme boundary, unless the Minister has 
made a declaration in respect of the well under 
section 2.2, or
	(v)	by adding the following after clause (f):
	(f.1)	"oil sands well event" means a well event that is 
part of an oil sands well;
	(vi)	by adding the following after clause (g):
	(g.1)	"oil well event" means a well event that is part of 
an oil well;
	(g.2)	"operator", in respect of a well, means the person 
who is the operator of the well according to the 
records of the Department;
	(g.3)	"production month", in respect of a well, means a 
month in which crude oil or oil sands is obtained 
from the well;
	(vii)	by repealing clause (h) and substituting the 
following:
	(h)	"qualifying period", in respect of an oil well or oil 
sands well, means a period of 24 consecutive 
months during which the requirements of section 
2(a) to (c) are satisfied in respect of the well;
	(viii)	in clause (k) by adding "(AR 348/93)" after 
"Enhanced Recovery of Oil Royalty Reduction 
Regulation";
	(ix)	by adding the following after clause (k):
	(l)	"well event" means
	(i)	a part of a well completed in a zone and given 
a unique well identifier by the Board,
	(ii)	parts of a well completed in 2 or more zones 
and given a single unique well identifier by 
the Board,
	(iii)	a part of a well completed in and recovering 
crude oil or oil sands from a zone but which 
has not yet been given a unique well 
identifier by the Board, or
	(iv)	parts of a well completed in and recovering 
crude oil or oil sands from 2 or more zones 
during the period when the parts are 
considered by the Minister as a single well 
event for the purposes of this Regulation and 
before the Board makes a decision whether or 
not to give the parts a single unique well 
identifier.
	(c)	by adding the following after subsection (1):
(2)  A reference in this Regulation to a month, whether by its 
name or not, shall be construed as the period commencing at 
7:00 a.m. Mountain Standard Time on the first day of the 
month and ending immediately before 7:00 a.m. Mountain 
Standard Time on the first day of the next month.

3   Section 2 is repealed and the following is substituted:
Reactivated well
2   An oil well or oil sands well is a reactivated well if it meets all 
of the following requirements:
	(a)	the well does not produce any substance, other than 
excluded production or water, in any month in a period 
of 24 consecutive months beginning after the earliest 
finished drilling date of the well and ending after 
January 1993;
	(b)	the well commences or resumes production of crude oil 
or oil sands immediately following the 24-month period 
referred to in clause (a);
	(c)	any royalty exemption made in respect of the well 
before the 24-month period referred to in clause (a) was 
wholly revoked under section 6 or 7 before the 
commencement of that period and has not been 
reinstated under section 8.1;
	(d)	the well is not an ineligible well.

4   The following is added after section 2:
Eligible oil
2.1(1)  Crude oil or oil sands that is not excluded production is 
eligible oil if it is obtained from a reactivated well
	(a)	after the well's qualifying period,
	(b)	from an eligible well event,
	(c)	from a pool or oil sands deposit penetrated by the well 
before the end of the well's qualifying period, and
	(d)	in segregation from crude oil or oil sands obtained from 
a pool or oil sands deposit penetrated by the well after 
the end of the well's qualifying period if that pool or 
deposit is deeper than the pool or deposit referred to in 
clause (c).
(2)  An oil well event or an oil sands well event is an eligible well 
event for the purposes of this section if all of the following apply:
	(a)	the well event is part of a reactivated well;
	(b)	the Crown interest in the well event was greater than 
0% in the last month of the well's qualifying period or 
the Minister has made an order under subsection (3) 
declaring that this requirement has been waived;
	(c)	if crude oil or oil sands had been obtained from the well 
event in the last month of the well's qualifying period, 
that crude oil or oil sands would have been subject to 
the payment of royalty under the Petroleum Royalty 
Regulation (AR 248/90) or the Oil Sands Royalty 
Regulation, 1984 (AR 166/84).
(3)  The Minister may, by order, declare that the requirement in 
subsection (2)(b) has been waived in respect of an oil well event or 
oil sands well event if the only reason the well event does not meet 
that requirement is undue delay on the part of the Minister to enter 
into a unit agreement that provides for a Crown interest for the 
well event that is greater than 0%.
(4)  An order by the Minister under subsection (3) may be made 
effective on a date earlier than the date the order is made, but may 
not be effective in respect of any period of time for which the 
Minister's power under section 38 of the Act to recalculate or 
make additional calculations of the Crown's royalty share of a 
mineral has expired.
Declaration that well not ineligible well
2.2(1)  The Minister may, by order, declare that a well that is in 
whole or in part within the area enclosed by the scheme boundary 
of a scheme or less than 0.8 kilometres from the scheme boundary 
of a scheme is not an ineligible well if
	(a)	the Board has cancelled its requirement for or approval 
of the scheme under section 38 or 39, respectively, of 
the Oil and Gas Conservation Act, or
	(b)	the t-factor for the scheme, if any, for the purposes of 
the Enhanced Recovery of Oil Royalty Reduction 
Regulation (AR 348/93) is zero.
(2)  An order by the Minister under subsection (1) may be made 
effective on a date earlier than the date the order is made, but may 
not be effective in respect of any period of time for which the 
Minister's power under section 38 of the Act to recalculate or 
make additional calculations of the Crown's royalty share of a 
mineral has expired.

5   Section 3(2) is repealed.

6   Section 4 is repealed and the following is substituted:
Termination of royalty exemption
4(1)  A royalty exemption in respect of a reactivated well 
terminates
	(a)	at the beginning of the month in which the well becomes a 
low productivity well under the Low Productivity Well 
Royalty Reduction Regulation (AR 350/92),
	(b)	at the beginning of the month in which a declaration in 
respect of the well under the Horizontal Re-entry Well 
Royalty Reduction Regulation (AR 348/92) is effective,
	(c)	at the beginning of the month in which the well becomes an 
ineligible well,
	(d)	at the beginning of the month after the month in which the 
well is abandoned,
	(e)	when 8000 m3 of eligible oil has been obtained from the well, 
if that quantity of eligible oil is obtained from the well before 
September 1, 2007,
	(f)	on August 31, 2007, if on or before that date the value of the 
royalty exemption for the well determined under subsection 
(2) exceeds the maximum value determined for the well 
under subsection (4), or
	(g)	when the value of the royalty exemption for the well 
determined under subsection (2) exceeds the maximum value 
determined for the well under subsection (4), if that occurs 
after August 31, 2007.
(2)  The aggregate of the amounts determined under subsection (3) 
for a reactivated well is the value of the royalty exemption for the 
well for the purposes of subsection (1)(f) and (g).
(3)  Each month that a royalty is exempted in respect of a well 
pursuant to section 3 the Minister shall determine the value of the 
royalty exemption for that month by multiplying the quantity of 
royalty exempted for the month by the par price prescribed under 
section 1.1(4) of the Petroleum Royalty Regulation (AR 248/90) 
for that month that would have otherwise applied to the calculation 
of royalty, had the royalty not been exempted under this 
Regulation.
(4)  The maximum value for the purposes of subsection (1)(f) and 
(g) of a reactivated well is the product of $150 000 multiplied by 
the Crown interest for the well for the first production month after 
the qualifying period for the well.

7   Section 5 is amended by striking out "and" at the end of 
clause (a), adding ", and" at the end of clause (b) and by 
adding the following after clause (b):
	(c)	the number of hours over which the substance is obtained is 
consistent with a test of the well.

8   Section 6 is amended by repealing clauses (c) and (d) 
and substituting the following:
	(c)	the volume of eligible oil obtained from a reactivated well 
after commencing or resuming production cannot be 
reasonably attributed to work
	(i)	performed in relation to the well during or after the 
well's qualifying period, and
	(ii)	that is in addition to the work necessary to effect the 
commencement or resumption,
	(d)	any substance was obtained from a well during the qualifying 
period of the well while a restriction on production of that 
substance from the well was imposed by the Board,
	(d.1)	compliance with section 47(6) of the Act in connection with 
an audit or examination relating to a royalty exemption in 
respect of a well has been inadequate, or

9   Section 7 is amended
	(a)	by repealing subsection (1) and substituting the 
following:
Request to revoke royalty exemption
7(1)  The Minister may wholly revoke a royalty exemption in 
respect of eligible oil obtained from a reactivated well on 
receiving a written request to do so from the operator of the 
well.
	(b)	in subsection (2) by striking out "the well" and 
substituting "eligible oil obtained from the well".

10   The following is added after section 8:
Reinstatement of royalty exemption
8.1(1)  If the Minister considers it appropriate to do so, the 
Minister may reinstate a royalty exemption that was revoked 
wholly or in part under section 6 or 7.
(2)  If the Minister reinstates a royalty exemption under subsection 
(1) in respect of a reactivated well, royalty on the eligible oil 
obtained from the well is calculated as if entitlement to the 
exemption was never revoked.
(3)  A reinstatement made by the Minister under subsection (1) 
may be made effective on a date earlier than the date the 
reinstatement is made, but may not be effective in respect of any 
period of time for which the Minister's power under section 38 of 
the Act to recalculate or make additional calculations of the 
Crown's royalty share of a mineral has expired.
Limit on royalty adjustments
8.2   Despite any other provisions of this Regulation, oil obtained 
from an oil well or oil sands obtained from an oil sands well does 
not qualify for a royalty exemption under this Regulation in any 
month in which any of the following royalty adjustments have 
been made in respect of the oil or oil sands:
	(a)	the royalty reduction provided for in the Horizontal 
Re-entry Well Royalty Reduction Regulation 
(AR 348/92);
	(b)	the royalty reduction provided for in the Low 
Productivity Well Royalty Reduction Regulation 
(AR 350/92);
	(c)	the royalty exemption provided for in the Third Tier 
Exploratory Well Royalty Exemption Regulation 
(AR 16/93).

11   Section 10 is repealed and the following is substituted:
Expiry
10   For the purpose of ensuring that this Regulation is reviewed 
for ongoing relevancy and necessity, with the option that it may be 
repassed in its present or an amended form following a review, this 
Regulation expires on September 1, 2012.


--------------------------------
Alberta Regulation 208/2006
Mines and Minerals Act
NATURAL GAS ROYALTY REGULATION, 2002 
AMENDMENT REGULATION
Filed: August 23, 2006
For information only:   Made by the Lieutenant Governor in Council (O.C. 400/2006) 
on August 23, 2006 pursuant to section 36 of the Mines and Minerals Act. 
1   The Natural Gas Royalty Regulation, 2002 (AR 220/2002) 
is amended by this Regulation.

2   Section 1 is amended by repealing clause (bbb) and 
substituting the following:
	(bbb)	"solution gas" means
	(i)	gas that is separated from crude oil or crude bitumen 
after recovery from a well, and
	(ii)	gas that is dissolved in crude oil or crude bitumen under 
initial reservoir conditions and includes any of that gas 
that evolves as a result of changes in pressure or 
temperature, or both, due to human disturbance;

3   Section 16 is repealed and the following is substituted:
Royalty exemptions and adjustments
16(1)  In accordance with and to the extent authorized under 
Schedule 8, natural gas and field condensate are exempted from 
the payment of royalty to the Crown.
(2)  In accordance with and to the extent authorized under 
Schedule 8, the royalty payable to the Crown on natural gas and 
field condensate is adjusted.

4   Schedule 8 is amended by repealing the heading to 
Schedule 8 and substituting the following:
Schedule 8 
 
Royalty Exemptions and Adjustments

5   Schedule 8 is amended by repealing the heading 
preceding section 3 and substituting the following:
Qualifying Intervals in Deep Gas Wells 
and Deep Tight Gas Wells

6   Schedule 8, section 3 is amended
	(a)	in subsection (1)
	(i)	by striking out "4 to 8" and substituting "4 to 14";
	(ii)	by repealing clause (d)(i) and substituting the 
following:
	(i)	the spudding in or commencement of deepening of 
which occurs after May 31, 1985 and before April 
1, 2010,
	(i.1)	that is drilled or deepened in the location of an 
agreement granting natural gas rights or petroleum 
and natural gas rights and having a term 
commencement date earlier than September 1, 
2006,
	(iii)	by striking out "or" at the end of clause (d)(viii) 
and adding the following after clause (d)(viii):
	(viii.1)	a well that initially produces oil either alone or 
with gas at a gas-oil ratio of less than 1800:1, and 
in respect of which the spudding in or 
commencement of deepening occurs on or after 
September 1, 2006,
	(viii.2)	a well that produces oil sands, other than a gas 
well as defined in the Oil and Gas Conservation 
Regulations (AR 151/71), in respect of which the 
spudding in or commencement of deepening 
occurs on or after September 1, 2006, or
	(iv)	in clause (d)(ix) by striking out "the Oil Royalty 
Incentive Regulation (AR 403/91) or";
	(v)	by adding the following after clause (f):
	(f.1)	"measured depth" means, in relation to a well, the 
longest distance in metres according to the records 
of the Board, measured along the bore of the well 
from the kelley bushing of the well to the base of a 
natural gas producing interval in the well that is 
producing in paying quantities;
	(f.2)	"non-vertical depth" means, in relation to a well, 
the difference in metres between the measured 
depth of the well and the vertical depth of the well 
from the kelley bushing of the well to the base of 
the natural gas producing interval in the deepest 
producing zone in the well that is producing in 
paying quantities;
	(vi)	by adding the following after clause (g):
	(g.1)	"qualified well" means a well
	(i)	the spudding in or commencement of 
deepening of which occurs on or after 
September 1, 2006 and on or before August 
31, 2011,
	(ii)	that is drilled or deepened in a drilling 
spacing unit that is not wholly or partly 
within the boundaries of a designated pool,
	(iii)	that is drilled to a depth of more than 2500 
metres, and
	(iv)	that produces natural gas from a qualifying 
pool,
		but does not include
	(v)	a well that is the subject of a subsisting 
certificate for an incentive exploratory well, 
in respect of its drilling or deepening, under a 
former incentive regulation,
	(vi)	a well in respect of which the Minister 
approved an application for a royalty 
exemption under section 7 of the pre-1994 
Regulation or section 7 of Schedule 6 of the 
1994 Regulation,
	(vii)	a well completed in a drilling spacing unit 
containing a well that at any time has been 
the subject of a royalty exemption under a 
former incentive regulation or under section 
8, 12 or 13 of Schedule 6 of the 1994 
Regulation or section 5 or 6 of this Schedule, 
or of a royalty adjustment under section 10 or 
11 of this Schedule,
	(viii)	unless otherwise approved by the Board, a 
well that is off-target within the meaning of 
the Oil and Gas Conservation Regulations 
(AR 151/71),
	(ix)	a well that, in the opinion of the Minister, 
initially produces oil either alone or with gas 
at a gas-oil ratio of less than 1800:1,
	(x)	a well that produces oil sands, other than a 
gas well as defined in the Oil and Gas 
Conservation Regulations (AR 151/71), or
	(xi)	a well whose production of crude oil or oil 
sands is exempt from royalty under the Third 
Tier Exploratory Well Royalty Exemption 
Regulation (AR 16/93) and that exemption 
has not been wholly revoked;
	(vii)	in clause (h)(i) and (ii) by adding "or qualified 
well" after "eligible well";
	(viii)	by repealing clause (j) and substituting the 
following:
	(j)	"twin well", in relation to an eligible well or 
qualified well, means a well that is
	(i)	spudded after May 31, 1985, in the case of an 
eligible well, or after August 31, 2006, in the 
case of a qualified well,
	(ii)	located in the same legal subdivision or 
drilling spacing unit, whichever is of lesser 
area, as that in which the eligible well or 
qualified well, as the case may be, is located, 
and
	(iii)	drilled to produce natural gas that, in the 
opinion of the Minister, is not initially 
recoverable from the eligible well or qualified 
well, as the case may be, due to inadvertent 
damage to the well;
	(ix)	by repealing clause (l);
	(x)	by adding the following after subsection (1):
(1.1)  A reference to the depth of a well or a part of a well 
in this section and sections 4 to 14 and Table 1 of this 
Schedule is
	(a)	a reference to the depth of the well or part of the 
well in metres according to the records of the 
Board, and
	(b)	except where the reference is used in relation to 
the measured depth of the well or part of the well, 
a reference to the vertical depth of the well or part 
of the well.
	(xi)	by repealing subsection (2) and substituting 
the following:
(2)  For the purposes of sections 5, 6, 10 and 11 of this 
Schedule, the "value of the exempted royalty quantity" 
with respect to a qualifying interval is the aggregate of 
the amounts of royalty compensation that would have 
been payable under the 1994 Regulation and this 
Regulation after January 1, 1994 in respect of the 
Crown's royalty share of natural gas, gas products and 
field condensate produced from the qualifying interval in 
the absence of
	(a)	any royalty exemption provided under sections 11 
to 15 of Schedule 6 of the 1994 Regulation, and
	(b)	any royalty exemption or adjustment under 
sections 3 to 14 of this Schedule,
and without any deductions for allowable costs.

7   Schedule 8 is amended by adding the following heading 
before section 4:
Exemptions for Qualifying Intervals 
in Deep Gas Wells

8   Schedule 8, section 4 is amended
	(a)	by striking out "and" at the end of subsection (2)(c) 
and adding the following after subsection (2)(c):
	(c.1)	the licensee has not, before the date of spudding or 
commencement of deepening of the well, furnished the 
Minister with written notice electing an adjustment for 
the well under section 10 of this Schedule rather than an 
exemption under section 5 of this Schedule, and
	(b)	by repealing subsection (4) and substituting the 
following:
(4)  Despite anything in this section, the Minister may approve 
an exemption under section 5 of this Schedule without an 
application if the licensee has not, before the date of spudding 
or commencement of deepening of the well, furnished the 
Minister with written notice electing an adjustment for the well 
under section 10 of this Schedule rather than an exemption 
under section 5 of this Schedule.

9   Schedule 8, section 5 is amended
	(a)	in subsection (1) by striking out ", section 11 of 
Schedule 6 of the 1994 Regulation or" and substituting 
"or section 11 of Schedule 6 of the 1994 Regulation, or an 
exemption under";
	(b)	by adding the following after subsection (1):
(1.1)  A royalty exemption under subsection (1)
	(a)	reduces to 0% the rate of royalty on natural gas, or on 
the field condensate and gas products obtained from 
natural gas, recovered from the qualifying interval of an 
eligible well before April 1, 2012, and
	(b)	reduces to 5% the rate of royalty on natural gas, or on 
the field condensate and gas products obtained from 
natural gas, recovered from the qualifying interval of an 
eligible well on or after April 1, 2012.
	(c)	by repealing subsection (3) and substituting the 
following:
(3)  A royalty exemption under subsection (1)
	(a)	commences with
	(i)	the later of the month in which production of 
natural gas from the qualifying interval is first 
obtained and the month in which the application 
was received by the Minister pursuant to section 
11 of the pre-1994 Regulation, section 11 of 
Schedule 6 of the 1994 Regulation or section 4 of 
this Schedule, or
	(ii)	the month in which production of natural gas from 
the qualifying interval is first obtained, where a 
royalty exemption has been approved under 
section 4 of this Schedule without an application,
			and
	(b)	continues until the value of the exempted royalty 
quantity with respect to the qualifying interval equals
	(i)	the remaining value of the exemption determined 
for the qualifying interval in accordance with 
subsection (4) of this section and section 7 of this 
Schedule, if production of natural gas from the 
qualifying interval commenced before January, 
1994, or
	(ii)	the value of the exemption determined for the 
qualifying interval in accordance with subsection 
(5) of this section and section 7 of this Schedule, if 
production of natural gas from the qualifying 
interval commenced during or after January, 1994.
	(d)	in subsection (4) by adding "subject to section 7 of this 
Schedule and" after "interval shall,";
	(e)	in subsection (5) by adding "subject to section 7 of this 
Schedule and" after "interval shall,".

10   Schedule 8, section 6 is amended
	(a)	in subsection (1) by striking out ", on application by 
the licensee,";
	(b)	in subsection (2)
	(i)	by striking out "an application under";
	(ii)	by repealing clause (a) and substituting the 
following:
	(a)	the royalty exemption commences with the month 
in which production of natural gas from the 
qualifying interval is first obtained;
	(c)	by adding the following after subsection (2):
(2.1)  A royalty exemption under subsection (2)
	(a)	reduces to 0% the rate of royalty on natural gas, or 
on the field condensate and gas products obtained 
from natural gas, recovered from the qualifying 
interval of an eligible well before April 1, 2012, 
and
	(b)	reduces to 5% the rate of royalty on natural gas, or 
on the field condensate and gas products obtained 
from natural gas, recovered from the qualifying 
interval of an eligible well on or after April 1, 
2012.

11   Schedule 8, section 7 is amended
	(a)	by striking out "value of the exempted royalty quantity" 
and substituting "remaining value or the value of the 
exemption, as the case may be,";
	(b)	by repealing clause (a) and substituting the 
following:
	(a)	the remaining value of the exemption determined for the 
qualifying interval in accordance with section 5(4) or 
the value of the exemption determined for the 
qualifying interval in accordance with section 5(5), as 
the case may be,

12   Schedule 8 is amended by adding the following after 
section 8:
Adjustments for Qualifying Intervals in 
Deep Tight Gas Wells
Application for adjustment
9(1)  A licensee of a qualified well may apply to the Minister for 
an adjustment under section 10 of this Schedule from the royalty 
otherwise payable to the Crown on the natural gas which is 
produced from a qualifying interval of the well.
(2)  The Minister may approve an adjustment applied for under 
subsection (1) if
	(a)	the application is in the form prescribed by the Minister 
and is received by the Minister no later than 6 months 
after the finished drilling date applicable to the drilling 
or deepening,
	(b)	the application contains the data and information 
required by the Minister,
	(c)	the Minister determines that the applicant is eligible to 
apply under subsection (1),
	(d)	the well is drilled or deepened
	(i)	in the location of an agreement granting natural 
gas rights, petroleum rights, or both, and having a 
term commencement date of September 1, 2006 or 
later, or
	(ii)	in the location of an agreement granting natural 
gas rights, petroleum rights, or both, and having a 
term commencement date earlier than September 
1, 2006 and the licensee has, before the date of 
spudding or commencement of deepening of the 
well, furnished the Minister with written notice 
electing an adjustment for the well under section 
10 of this Schedule rather than an exemption under 
section 5 of this Schedule,
			and
	(e)	the drilling or deepening of the well was conducted 
diligently and continuously to the satisfaction of the 
Minister.
(3)  The Minister may extend the time by which an application 
must be received under subsection (2) if the Minister considers an 
extension warranted in the circumstances.
(4)  Despite anything in this section, the Minister may approve an 
adjustment under section 10 of this Schedule without an 
application if the qualified well is drilled or deepened
	(a)	in the location of an agreement granting natural gas 
rights, petroleum rights, or both, and having a term 
commencement date of September 1, 2006 or later, or
	(b)	in the location of an agreement granting natural gas 
rights, petroleum rights, or both, and having a term 
commencement date earlier than September 1, 2006 and 
the licensee has, before the date of spudding or 
commencement of deepening of the well, furnished the 
Minister with written notice electing an adjustment for 
the well under section 10 of this Schedule rather than an 
exemption under section 5 of this Schedule.
(5)  The Minister shall withhold approval of an adjustment in 
respect of a qualified well until the Minister is of the opinion that 
production from the qualified well is unlikely to exceed the 
qualifying production rates for the well under section 14 of this 
Schedule.
Nature of adjustment
10(1)  Subject to subsection (2), if the Minister approves an 
adjustment under section 9 of this Schedule in respect of the 
drilling or deepening of a qualified well, the royalty otherwise 
payable to the Crown on natural gas production from the 
qualifying interval of the well is adjusted in accordance with this 
section.
(2)  A royalty adjustment under subsection (1) reduces to 5% the 
rate of royalty on natural gas, or on the field condensate and gas 
products obtained from natural gas, recovered from the qualifying 
interval of the qualified well.
(3)  The rate of royalty on natural gas production from a qualifying 
interval is not so reduced, in the case of a qualifying interval 
determined for the deepening of a qualified well, to the extent that 
the production occurs from a zone that is not below the deepest 
zone to which the well was previously drilled.
(4)  A royalty adjustment under subsection (1)
	(a)	commences with
	(i)	the later of the month in which production of 
natural gas from the qualifying interval is first 
obtained and the month in which the application 
was received by the Minister pursuant to section 9 
of this Schedule, and
	(ii)	the month in which production of natural gas from 
the qualifying interval is first obtained, where a 
royalty adjustment has been approved under 
section 9 of this Schedule without an application,
			and
	(b)	continues until the value of the exempted royalty 
quantity with respect to the qualifying interval equals 
the value of the adjustment determined for the interval 
in accordance with subsection (5).
(5)  The value of the adjustment for the qualifying interval in a 
qualified well shall, subject to section 12 of this Schedule and 
unless otherwise determined by the Minister in a particular case, be 
the lesser of the product of $3 600 000 and the conversion factor 
prescribed by the Minister for the qualifying interval, or the 
amount determined in accordance with the following:
	(a)	the Minister shall increase the respective Cumulative 
Values and Incremental Values in Table 1 of this 
Schedule by multiplying them by a conversion factor 
prescribed by the Minister for the qualifying interval;
	(b)	the value of the adjustment for the qualifying interval 
for the purposes of subsection (4)(b) is 
	(i)	an amount determined in accordance with Table 1 
of this Schedule as modified pursuant to clause (a),
		plus
	(ii)	an amount equal to the product of $1000 per metre, 
the conversion factor prescribed by the Minister 
for the qualifying interval and the non-vertical 
depth of the well,
		minus
	(iii)	the value of the exempted royalty quantity for the 
well under the 1994 Regulation and sections 5 and 
6 of this Schedule.
(6)  A royalty adjustment under this section does not apply in 
respect of any month that occurs after the 10-year period following 
the finished drilling date applicable to the drilling or deepening, 
and terminates if the well is abandoned.
Determinations by Minister
11(1)  If
	(a)	a well in respect of which a royalty adjustment has been 
approved under section 9 of this Schedule was drilled or 
deepened below a depth of 2500 metres to an interval of 
depth that was below the base of the natural gas bearing 
interval of the deepest zone from which the well was, in 
the opinion of the Minister, producing natural gas in 
paying quantities, and
	(b)	the Minister is satisfied that production of natural gas 
from a qualifying pool in the deeper interval was 
subsequently obtained in paying quantities from a 
drilling spacing unit that, on the date the spudding in or 
commencement of deepening of the well occurred, was 
not wholly or partly within the boundaries of a 
designated pool,
the Minister may determine a qualifying interval for the deeper 
interval as if the well has been deepened.
(2)  If the Minister determines a qualifying interval pursuant to 
subsection (1), the royalty otherwise payable to the Crown on 
natural gas production from the qualifying interval determined by 
the Minister is adjusted in accordance with the following:
	(a)	the royalty adjustment commences with the month in 
which production of natural gas from the qualifying 
interval is first obtained;
	(b)	the royalty adjustment continues until the value of the 
exempted royalty quantity with respect to the qualifying 
interval equals the value of the adjustment determined 
by the Minister for the qualifying interval in accordance 
with sections 10 and 12 of this Schedule.
(3)  A royalty adjustment under subsection (2) reduces to 5% the 
rate of royalty on natural gas, or on the field condensate and gas 
products obtained from natural gas, recovered from the qualifying 
interval of the qualified well.
(4)  A royalty adjustment under this section does not apply in 
respect of any month that occurs after the 10-year period following 
the finished drilling date applicable to the drilling or deepening, 
and terminates if the well is abandoned.
Value of Crown's royalty share
12   If the qualified well produces from a production entity in 
which the title to the natural gas is not owned solely by the Crown, 
the value of the adjustment with respect to a qualifying interval 
within that production entity shall for the purposes of sections 10 
and 11 of this Schedule be equal to an amount calculated by 
multiplying
	(a)	the value of the adjustment determined for the 
qualifying interval in accordance with section 10(5) of 
this Schedule,
by
	(b)	the Crown interest in production in relation to natural 
gas production from the qualifying interval
	(i)	for the month immediately preceding the month in 
which the royalty adjustment commenced, in the 
case of a well other than a well described in 
subclause (ii), or
	(ii)	for the month immediately preceding the month in 
which the natural gas became subject to a unit 
agreement, in the case of a well that produces 
natural gas that became subject to a unit agreement 
before the royalty adjustment commenced.
Transfer of adjustment
13(1)  The Minister may approve the transfer of a royalty 
adjustment under section 10 or 11 of this Schedule from a qualified 
well to its twin well.
(2)  If the Minister approves the transfer of a royalty adjustment 
pursuant to subsection (1),
	(a)	the royalty adjustment on production from the qualified 
well from which the adjustment was transferred 
terminates on the effective date of the transfer of the 
adjustment to the twin well, and
	(b)	the royalty adjustment period applicable to the twin well 
is the balance of the royalty adjustment period that 
would have been applicable to the qualified well from 
which the adjustment was transferred.
Revocation of adjustment
14(1)  If the average daily production of natural gas, field 
condensate or both from a qualified well for 
	(a)	the first period of 12 consecutive months commencing with 
the first month in which such production is recovered for 
which royalty is reduced pursuant to a royalty adjustment, or 
	(b)	each subsequent period of 12 consecutive months following 
the period referred to in clause (a),
exceeds the qualifying production rate applicable to the qualified 
well on the last day of the period, the royalty adjustment is 
revoked.
(2)  For the purposes of this section, volumes of field condensate 
shall be expressed as the corresponding volumes of natural gas, 
determined using a conversion rate of 1000 cubic metres of natural 
gas per cubic metre of condensate.
(3)  Revocation of a royalty adjustment under this section is 
effective
	(a)	on the first day of the month in which production of 
natural gas, field condensate or both from the qualified 
well increased, where the Minister is satisfied that the 
average daily production exceeded the qualifying 
production rate by reason of such increase and that the 
increase was the result of deepening of the well after the 
commencement of the royalty adjustment, or
	(b)	on the date of commencement of the royalty adjustment, 
in any other case.
(4)  If a royalty adjustment is revoked under subsection (1), royalty 
shall be calculated on natural gas, field condensate or both 
recovered from the well from and after the effective date of 
revocation as if entitlement to the royalty adjustment from and 
after that date never arose.
(5)  For the purposes of subsection (1), the average daily 
production from a qualified well is determined by dividing the total 
quantity of natural gas, field condensate or both produced from the 
qualifying well during the 12-month period by the number of days 
in that 12-month period.
(6)  Subject to subsection (9), the qualifying production rate 
applicable to a qualified well on the last day of the period of 12 
consecutive months referred to in subsection (1)(a) is,
	(a)	if on that day the base of the natural gas producing 
interval in the deepest producing zone in the well that is 
producing in paying quantities is deeper than 2500 
metres but not deeper than 3500 metres, the amount per 
cubic metre determined in accordance with the 
following formula:
 
where
	QPR	is the qualifying production rate for the well, and
	MD	 is the measured depth of the well,
			or
	(b)	if on that day the base of the natural gas producing 
interval in the deepest producing zone in the well that is 
producing in paying quantities is deeper than 3500 
metres, the amount per cubic metre determined in 
accordance with the following formula:

 

where
	QPR and MD	have the same meaning as in clause (a).
(7)  Subject to subsection (9), the qualifying production rate for a 
qualified well on the last day of the next period of 12 consecutive 
months following the period of 12 consecutive months referred to 
in subsection (1)(a) is 80% of QPR determined for the well under 
whichever of clauses (a) or (b) of subsection (6) applies in relation 
to the well by virtue of the depth of the well on that day.
(8)  Subject to subsection (9), the qualifying production rate for a 
qualified well on the last day of each subsequent period of 12 
consecutive months following the 2 periods of 12 consecutive 
months referred to in subsections (1)(a) and (7) is 68% of QPR 
determined for the well under whichever of clauses (a) or (b) of 
subsection (6) applies in relation to the well by virtue of the depth 
of the well on that day.
(9)  If, according to the records of the Department, the percentage 
of the natural gas recovered from a qualified well during the last 
month of a period of 12 consecutive months referred to in 
subsection (6), (7) or (8) that is comprised of hydrogen sulphide 
and carbon dioxide exceeds 15% of the natural gas by volume, the 
qualifying production rate determined under those subsections 
shall be adjusted to an amount determined under the following 
formula:
 
where
	AQPR	is the adjusted qualifying production rate;
	QPR	 is the qualifying production rate determined under 
subsection (6), (7) or (8), as the case may be;
	H2S%	 is the percentage of the natural gas that is, according to 
the records of the Department, composed of hydrogen 
sulphide;
	CO2%	is the percentage of the natural gas that is, according to 
the records of the Department, composed of carbon 
dioxide.

13   Schedule 8, Table 1 and Table 2 are repealed and the 
following is substituted:
Table 1  
 
Value of Exemption or Adjustment per 
Eligible Well or Qualified Well
Depth of Eligible Well or 
Qualified Well to Base of 
Natural Gas Producing Interval 
in Deepest Zone Producing in 
Paying Quantities
Cumulative Value
Incremental Value
(metres)
($000)
($/metre)
2500
        0
1000
3000
     500
1000
3500
   1000
1000
4000
   1500
1300
4500
   2150
1300
5000
   2800
1600
5500 or deeper    
   3600


14(1)  The Oil Sands Royalty Regulation, 1984 (AR 166/84) is 
amended
	(a)	by adding the following after section 1.1:
1.2   This Regulation does not apply to solution gas.
	(b)	by repealing section 4 and substituting the 
following:
4   In this Regulation,
	(a)	"solution gas" means
	(i)	gas that is separated from crude bitumen after 
recovery from a well, and
	(ii)	gas that is dissolved in crude bitumen under initial 
reservoir conditions and includes any of that gas 
that evolves as a result of changes in pressure or 
temperature, or both, due to human disturbance;
	(b)	"well event" means
	(i)	a part of a well completed in a zone and given a 
unique well identifier by the Board,
	(ii)	parts of a well completed in 2 or more zones and 
given a single unique well identifier by the Board,
	(iii)	a part of a well completed in and recovering crude 
bitumen from a zone but which has not yet been 
given a unique well identifier by the Board, or
	(iv)	parts of a well completed in and recovering crude 
bitumen from 2 or more zones during the period 
when the parts are considered by the Minister as a 
single well event for the purposes of this 
Regulation and before the Board makes a decision 
whether or not to give the parts a single unique 
well identifier.
(2)   The Oil Sands Royalty Regulation, 1997 (AR 185/97) is 
amended
	(a)	in section 1(q) by adding "and solution gas" after 
"natural gas";
	(b)	by adding the following after section 1(hh):
	(hh.1)	"solution gas" means
	(i)	gas that is separated from crude bitumen after 
recovery from a well, and
	(ii)	gas that is dissolved in crude bitumen under initial 
reservoir conditions and includes any of that gas 
that evolves as a result of changes in pressure or 
temperature, or both, due to human disturbance;


--------------------------------
Alberta Regulation 209/2006
Safety Codes Act
ELECTRICAL CODE REGULATION
Filed: August 23, 2006
For information only:   Made by the Lieutenant Governor in Council (O.C. 407/2006) 
on August 23, 2006 pursuant to section 65 of the Safety Codes Act. 
Table of Contents
	1	Definitions
	2	Electrical systems equipment
	3	Codes declared in force
	4	Repeal
	5	Coming into force 
Definitions
1(1)  In this Regulation,
	(a)	"Act" means the Safety Codes Act;
	(b)	"certification body" means an organization accredited by the 
Standards Council of Canada as a certification body;
	(c)	"inspection body" means an organization accredited by the 
Standards Council of Canada as an inspection body.
(2)  The definitions in the Act and a code declared in force by this 
Regulation apply to the words used in this Regulation.
Electrical systems equipment
2(1)  If a code, standard or body of rules declared in force under the 
Act with respect to electrical systems requires approved equipment, 
that equipment must meet the requirements of this section.
(2)  No person shall manufacture, install, sell or offer for sale any 
equipment related to electrical systems for use in Alberta unless the 
equipment has been
	(a)	certified by a certification body in accordance with the 
certification body's terms of accreditation with the Standards 
Council of Canada, or
	(b)	inspected by an inspection body in accordance with the 
inspection body's terms of accreditation with the Standards 
Council of Canada.
(3)  Subsection (2) does not apply to electrical equipment of an electric 
distribution system or a transmission line as defined in the Hydro and 
Electric Energy Act.
Codes declared in force
3   The following codes are declared in force in respect of electrical 
systems:
	(a)	the Canadian Electrical Code, Part I, Twentieth Edition, 
C22.1-06;
	(b)	the Code for Electrical Installations at Oil and Gas Facilities, 
Third Edition, 2006, published by the Safety Codes Council;
	(c)	the Alberta Electrical and Communication Utility Code, 
Second Edition, 2002, published by the Safety Codes 
Council.
Repeal
4   The Electrical Code Regulation (AR 145/2002) is repealed.
Coming into force
5   This Regulation comes into force on September 1, 2006.


--------------------------------
Alberta Regulation 210/2006
Municipal Government Act
APEX PLUS INVESTMENT REGULATION
Filed: August 24, 2006
For information only:   Made by the Minister of Municipal Affairs (M.O. L:131/06) 
on August 14, 2006 pursuant to section 250(4) of the Municipal Government Act. 
Table of Contents
	1	Definitions
	2	Additional investments
	3	Rating agencies
	4	Ratings
	5	Limitations on municipality
	6	Consequential
	7	Expiry
Definitions
1   In this Regulation,
	(a)	"Act" means the Municipal Government Act;
	(b)	"APEX Plus" means the supplemental employee retirement 
plan for municipal employees operated by the Alberta 
Municipal Services Corporation;
	(c)	"municipality" means a municipality, other than the City of 
Calgary or the City of Edmonton, that participates in APEX 
Plus;
	(d)	"securities" has the meaning given to it in section 250(1) of 
the Act.
Additional investments
2   In addition to the investments referred to in section 250(2) of the 
Act and section 2 of the Investment Regulation (AR 66/2000), a 
municipality may invest its money designated to fund APEX Plus in
	(a)	securities issued or guaranteed by a credit union or trust 
corporation established or continued under the laws of 
Canada or a province other than Alberta,
	(b)	securities of any of the following entities, or of a body that is 
the equivalent of any of the following entities, established 
under the laws of Canada or a province other than Alberta:
	(i)	a municipality;
	(ii)	a school division;
	(iii)	a school district;
	(iv)	a hospital district;
	(v)	a regional health authority,
	(vi)	a regional services commission;
	(c)	securities, including securities denominated in foreign 
currencies, issued or guaranteed by
	(i)	the government of a jurisdiction outside Canada or an 
agent of that government,
	(ii)	a corporation with its head office located in a 
jurisdiction outside Canada or an agent of that 
corporation, or
	(iii)	a bank incorporated in a jurisdiction outside Canada or 
an agent of that bank
		if the securities are rated by at least one of the rating agencies 
listed in section 3 with a rating that is equivalent to the 
ratings set out in section 4,
	(d)	common stocks, partially paid shares, convertible debentures, 
preferred shares, warrants or rights or other equity 
instruments that are publicly traded on a recognized stock 
exchange in or outside Canada,
	(e)	real estate, in the form of direct property ownership, in 
Canada, and
	(f)	units in pooled funds of all or any of the investments 
described in section 250(2)(a) to (c) of the Act, section 
2(1)(a) to (c) of the Investment Regulation (AR 66/2000) and 
clauses (a) to (e) of this section.
Rating agencies
3   The rating agencies referred to in section 2 are the following:
	(a)	Dominion Bond Rating Service Limited;
	(b)	Moody's Investors Service, Inc.;
	(c)	Standard & Poor's Corporation.
Ratings
4   The ratings referred to in section 2 are the following:
	(a)	a minimum of R-1 or BBB- for investments with a maturity 
date that is less than one year after the date the investment is 
issued;
	(b)	a minimum of BBB- for investments with a maturity date that 
is one year or more after the date the investment is issued.
Limitations on municipality
5   In making investments, the municipality must at all times be 
governed
	(a)	by the prudent person rule as understood generally by the 
investment community in Canada and Alberta, and
	(b)	by the investment policy approved by its council.
Consequential
6   The Investment Regulation (AR 66/2000) is amended in 
section 2(1)(a)
	(a)	in subclause (i) by adding "subject to subclause (ii)," 
before "if the municipality";
	(b)	in subclause (ii) by adding "or the investment is 
permitted by the APEX Plus Investment Regulation" after 
"Major Cities Investment Regulation (AR 249/2000)".
Expiry
7   For the purpose of ensuring that this Regulation is reviewed for 
ongoing relevancy and necessity, with the option that it may be 
repassed in its present or an amended form following a review, this 
Regulation expires on June 30, 2012.


--------------------------------
Alberta Regulation 211/2006
Traffic Safety Act
VEHICLE INSPECTION REGULATION
Filed: August 29, 2006
For information only:   Made by the Minister of Infrastructure and Transportation 
(M.O. 31/06) on August 28, 2006 pursuant to sections 81 and 156 of the Traffic 
Safety Act. 
Table of Contents
	1	Interpretation
Part 1 
Declaration and Sale of Vehicles
Division 1 
Declaration
	2	Declaration by insurance company
	3	Declaration by self-insured
	4	Declaration by the Registrar
	5	Salvage motor vehicle from outside Alberta
	6	Non-repairable vehicle
	7	Notice to the Registrar
	8	Assignment of vehicle status
	9	Return of certificate of registration
	10	End of salvage motor vehicle or unsafe vehicle status
	11	Reinstatement of salvage motor vehicle 
or unsafe vehicle status
	12	Notification regarding non-repairable vehicle
Division 2 
Sale of Salvage, Out of Province, 
Used Motor Vehicles
	13	Sale of salvage motor vehicle
	14	Sale of out of province motor vehicle
	15	Sale of used motor vehicle
	16	Expiry of certificate
	17	Application
Part 2 
Vehicle Inspection
Division 1 
Requirements for Vehicle 
Inspection Certificates
	18	Registration of salvage or out of province 
motor vehicle or unsafe vehicle
	19	Operation of commercial vehicle
	20	Other vehicles
	21	Production of certificate on request
Division 2 
Vehicle Inspection Requirements
	22	Adoption of manuals
	23	Compliance with vehicle inspection manuals
	24	Prohibition
	25	Supplying certificates
	26	Unissued certificate
	27	Issuing a certificate
	28	Completing a certificate
	29	Issuing record of inspection
	30	Expiry of certificate
	31	Re-inspection
	32	Direction to be inspected
	33	Revocation of salvage or out of province motor 
vehicle inspection certificate
	34	Revocation of commercial vehicle 
inspection certificate
	35	Revocation of a certificate
	36	Recognition of other certificates
	37	Recognition of other certificates for 
commercial vehicles
Part 3 
Licences
Division 1 
Background Check
	38	Background check
Division 2 
Vehicle Inspection Facilities
	39	Facility licences
	40	Application
	41	Renewal, addition or deletion
	42	Expiry
	43	Facility requirements
	44	Posted licence
	45	Posted shop rate
Division 3 
Vehicle Inspection Technicians
	46	Technician licences
	47	Application
	48	Background check
	49	Renewal, addition and deletion
	50	Expiry
	51	Training and examination
	52	Production of licence
Division 4 
Facility and Technician Application Fees
	53	Fees
	54	Exemption from fee
Part 4 
Administration and Enforcement
Division 1 
Licence Suspension and Cancellation
	55	Automatic suspension and reinstatement
	56	Criminal offences
	57	Investigation of facility or technician
	58	Audit
	59	Submission of information
	60	Cooperation with directions
	61	Suspension, cancellation or prohibition
	62	Show cause
	63	Notice to licence holder
	64	Return of documents
	65	Removal of suspension, cancellation or prohibition
Division 2 
Vehicle Safety Investigator Directive
	66	Issuance of directive by investigator
	67	Compliance with directive
	68	Disposition of a directive
Division 3 
Administrative Penalties
	69	Contents of notice
	70	Determination of penalty amount
	71	Limitation period
Part 5 
Licensee and Technician Profiles
	72	Definitions
	73	Establishing and maintaining profiles
	74	Contents of profiles
Part 6 
General
	75	Terms and conditions
	76	Registrar's exemption
	77	Continuing competency
	78	Crown property
	79	Accuracy of records
	80	Examination of records
	81	Records and information
	82	Vehicle safety investigator
	83	Missing certificate
	84	Missing licence
	85	Non-transferability
	86	Offences
Part 7 
Transitional Provisions, Consequential 
Amendments, Repeals, Expiry and 
Coming into Force
	87	Transitional provisions
Consequential Amendments
	88	Commercial Vehicle Certificate and 
Insurance Regulation
	89	Operator Licensing and Vehicle 
Control Regulation
	90	Procedures Regulation
Repeals, Expiry and Coming into Force
	91	Repeals
	92	Expiry
	93	Coming into force 
 
Schedule
Interpretation
1(1)  In this Regulation,
	(a)	"Act" means the Traffic Safety Act;
	(b)	"bus" means a bus as defined in section 130(1)(a) of the Act;
	(c)	"carrier" means a carrier as defined in section 130(1)(b) of 
the Act;
	(d)	"certificate" means a vehicle inspection certificate issued 
under section 27 and includes a commercial vehicle 
inspection certificate, an out of province motor vehicle 
inspection certificate or a salvage motor vehicle inspection 
certificate, as applicable;
	(e)	"commercial vehicle" means
	(i)	a commercial vehicle as defined in the Act, or a 
combination of commercial vehicles, that is registered 
for a gross weight of 11 794 kilograms or more and that 
is not a bus,
	(ii)	a converter dolly, or
	(iii)	a bus;
	(f)	"converter dolly" means a trailer converter dolly as defined 
in the Motor Vehicle Safety Regulations, CRC c.1038;
	(g)	"date of inspection" means the date an inspection certificate 
is issued;
	(h)	"decal" means a vehicle inspection decal referred to in 
section 27;
	(i)	"facility" means a vehicle inspection facility that is licensed 
under this Regulation;
	(j)	"facility licence" means a vehicle inspection facility licence 
issued by the Registrar under this Regulation;
	(k)	"Facility Operating Manual" means a Vehicle Inspection 
Facility Operating Manual adopted under section 22, 
respecting the operation of a vehicle inspection facility for 
the type of vehicle being inspected;
	(l)	"handi-bus" means a bus that meets the Canadian Standards 
Association Standard D409 applicable at the time it was 
manufactured and that is used primarily for the purpose of 
providing transportation for persons with physical 
disabilities;
	(m)	"investigator" means a vehicle safety investigator authorized 
by the Registrar to carry out investigations, audits and 
reviews of licensees, technicians and facilities; 
	(n)	"licensee" means the holder of a facility licence and includes 
an agent, manager or employee of the holder of the licence;
	(o)	"out of province motor vehicle" means a motor vehicle that is 
not registered under the Act and was last registered in a 
jurisdiction other than Alberta;
	(p)	"record of inspection" means a record issued by a vehicle 
inspection technician in accordance with the requirements set 
out in the Facility Operating Manual and the applicable 
Vehicle Inspection Manual;
	(q)	"subsisting", when used in relation to a certificate or licence 
under this Regulation, means that, at the relevant time, the 
certificate or licence is current and has not expired nor been 
revoked, suspended or cancelled;
	(r)	"technician" means a vehicle inspection technician who 
holds a vehicle inspection technician licence issued under 
this Regulation;
	(s)	"technician licence" means a vehicle inspection technician 
licence issued by the Registrar under this Regulation;
	(t)	"trade certificate" means a trade certificate granted under the 
Apprenticeship and Industry Training Act;
	(u)	"transit bus" means a bus that is operated
	(i)	under the management of an urban area when the bus is 
operated within the boundaries of that urban area or 
between that urban area and an abutting urban area, and
	(ii)	at regular intervals, in accordance with a set time 
schedule or over a specified route,
		but does not include a handi-bus;
	(v)	"unsafe vehicle" means a vehicle that has been assigned 
status as an unsafe vehicle by the Registrar under section 8;
	(w)	"Vehicle Inspection Manual" means a Vehicle Inspection 
Program Manual of Inspection Methods and Standards 
adopted under section 22.
(2)  For the purposes of the Act and this Regulation, "non-repairable 
vehicle" means a salvage motor vehicle that is a non-repairable vehicle 
as set out in Part 1.
(3)  For the purposes of the Act and this Regulation, "salvage motor 
vehicle" means a motor vehicle that is a salvage motor vehicle as set 
out in Part 1.
(4)  This Regulation does not apply to an off-highway vehicle.
(5)  Sections 19 and 21 of this Regulation do not apply to the 
following:
	(a)	a commercial vehicle that is being used primarily to transport 
an agricultural product where the driver of the vehicle
	(i)	is a bona fide farmer who owns or produced that 
agricultural product, or
	(ii)	is an employee of that farmer;
	(b)	a 2- or 3-axle vehicle that is used for the transport of primary 
products on a forest, lake or river, where the driver or 
driver's employer is the producer of those primary products;
	(c)	a transit bus.
Part 1 
Declaration and Sale of Vehicles
Division 1 
Declaration
Declaration by insurance company
2(1)  A motor vehicle is a salvage motor vehicle if
	(a)	it is damaged and an insurance company under a contract of 
insurance does any of the following:
	(i)	replaces the motor vehicle;
	(ii)	pays an amount determined under a contract of 
insurance for the damaged motor vehicle and acquires 
ownership of it;
	(iii)	pays an amount determined under a contract of 
insurance for the market value of the motor vehicle 
before it was damaged, less its value before any repairs 
are made to it, and does not acquire ownership of it,
	(b)	after being stolen,
	(i)	it is recovered and is found to have been damaged while 
it was stolen, and
	(ii)	an insurance company under a contract of insurance 
replaces the motor vehicle or pays an amount 
determined under the contract of insurance for the 
motor vehicle and acquires ownership of it,
		or
	(c)	an insurance company would have been required to do one of 
the things set out in clause (a) or (b)(ii) but did not do so 
because the insured person breached the contract of insurance 
or did not accept the payment determined under the contract 
of insurance for the market value of the motor vehicle.
(2)  Subsection (1) does not apply to a motor vehicle if the sole 
damage to the motor vehicle is hail damage to the outer body sheet 
metal.
Declaration by self-insured
3(1)  If a financial responsibility card has been issued to a person 
under section 825 of the Insurance Act and
	(a)	the person is liable for damage to a motor vehicle that is not 
owned or operated by the person, the motor vehicle is a 
salvage motor vehicle if the person
	(i)	replaces the motor vehicle,
	(ii)	pays an amount for the motor vehicle and acquires 
ownership of it, or
	(iii)	pays an amount for the damage that takes into account 
the market value of the motor vehicle before it was 
damaged, less its value before any repairs are made to 
it, and does not acquire ownership of it,
		or
	(b)	damage occurs to a motor vehicle that is owned or operated 
by the person, the motor vehicle is a salvage motor vehicle if 
the person
	(i)	is of the opinion that the cost of repairing the motor 
vehicle is more than the value of the motor vehicle 
before it was damaged, and
	(ii)	sells or disposes of the motor vehicle instead of 
repairing it.
(2)  Subsection (1)(b) does not apply to a motor vehicle
	(a)	if the sole damage to the motor vehicle is hail damage to the 
outer body sheet metal, or
	(b)	the motor vehicle was stolen but was not recovered.
Declaration by the Registrar
4   A motor vehicle is a salvage motor vehicle if it is assigned salvage 
motor vehicle status by the Registrar under section 8.
Salvage motor vehicle from outside Alberta
5   If a jurisdiction outside Alberta designates a motor vehicle as a 
salvage motor vehicle or assigns it a substantially similar status and the 
motor vehicle is brought into Alberta, the motor vehicle is deemed to 
be a salvage motor vehicle for the purposes of this Regulation.
Non-repairable vehicle
6   A salvage motor vehicle is a non-repairable vehicle if it has no 
resale value except as a source of parts or scrap metal, including, 
without limitation, a salvage motor vehicle that
	(a)	has been recovered after being stolen but with substantially 
all the body panels or interior components missing,
	(b)	has been submerged in water that reached the bottom of the 
vehicle's dash panel,
	(c)	has been burned or damaged by heat in 2 or more 
compartments or burned or damaged by heat to the extent 
that high-strength steel components are affected,
	(d)	has, in the case of a full frame motor vehicle, extensive 
damage requiring replacement of both cab and frame, or
	(e)	has, in the case of a unibody motor vehicle,
	(i)	collision or other damages to the passenger 
compartment floor, cowl or A-pillar,
	(ii)	collision or other damages to the rocker panel and 
B-pillar extending into the floor, or
	(iii)	an opening made anywhere in the unibody as part of a 
rescue or recovery operation.
Notice to the Registrar
7(1)  The following shall notify the Registrar or a person appointed by 
the Registrar that a motor vehicle is a salvage motor vehicle not more 
than 6 days after it becomes a salvage motor vehicle:
	(a)	an insurance company referred to in section 2;
	(b)	a person who does one of the things referred to in section 
3(1).
(2)  Notification under subsection (1) must include the following:
	(a)	if the person is an insurance company,
	(i)	the company's name and address and the name, address 
and telephone number of the company's contact person, 
and
	(ii)	the number of the insurance policy, the number of the 
claim and the date the claim was paid or, if the claim 
was not paid, the reason for not paying it;
	(b)	if the person is not an insurance company, the person's name, 
address and telephone number;
	(c)	the name, address and telephone number of the owner of the 
motor vehicle;
	(d)	the following information about the motor vehicle:
	(i)	its make, model and year of manufacture;
	(ii)	the manufacturer's serial number;
	(iii)	the type of motor vehicle;
	(iv)	the licence plate number of the motor vehicle and the 
jurisdiction in which it was issued;
	(v)	the odometer reading;
	(e)	the cause of damage to the motor vehicle;
	(f)	a brief description of the damage to the motor vehicle;
	(g)	whether as a result of the damage the motor vehicle is a 
non-repairable vehicle;
	(h)	any other information that may be required by the Registrar.
(3)  The Registrar may direct the insurance company referred to in 
subsection (1)(a) or the person referred to in subsection (1)(b) to 
reimburse the Registrar or the person appointed by the Registrar for the 
costs of administering this section and section 8.
Assignment of vehicle status
8   If the Registrar is of the opinion that the operation of a vehicle may 
pose a safety hazard to persons or other vehicles on the highway by 
reason of structural or other defects, the Registrar may assign the 
vehicle status in one of the following categories:
	(a)	salvage motor vehicle;
	(b)	non-repairable motor vehicle;
	(c)	unsafe vehicle, whether or not the vehicle is subject to a 
direction under section 66 of the Act;
	(d)	another category determined by the Registrar to be 
appropriate.
Return of certificate of registration
9   If a motor vehicle becomes a salvage motor vehicle, the person in 
possession of the motor vehicle's certificate of registration shall return 
the certificate to the Registrar not more than 14 days after the motor 
vehicle becomes a salvage motor vehicle.
End of salvage motor vehicle or unsafe vehicle status
10(1)  A motor vehicle is no longer a salvage motor vehicle when a 
subsisting salvage motor vehicle inspection certificate for the motor 
vehicle is filed with the Registrar.
(2)  A vehicle is no longer an unsafe vehicle when
	(a)	a subsisting salvage motor vehicle inspection certificate for 
the vehicle is filed with the Registrar, or
	(b)	when the Registrar for any other reason has determined that 
the vehicle is no longer an unsafe vehicle and has changed its 
status to another category under section 8 or 33(7).
Reinstatement of salvage motor vehicle 
or unsafe vehicle status
11(1)  Subject to subsection (2), if a salvage motor vehicle inspection 
certificate is filed with the Registrar for a motor vehicle and the 
certificate is later revoked under this Regulation, the motor vehicle 
becomes a salvage motor vehicle again, unless it has been assigned to 
another category by the Registrar under section 8 or 33(7).
(2)  If a salvage motor vehicle inspection certificate is filed with the 
Registrar for a vehicle that was previously assigned unsafe vehicle 
status by the Registrar and the certificate is later revoked under this 
Regulation, the vehicle becomes an unsafe vehicle again, unless it has 
been assigned to another category by the Registrar under section 8 or 
33(7).
Notification regarding non-repairable vehicle
12(1)  A person who purchases a salvage motor vehicle for scrap or 
parts or who destroys or dismantles a salvage motor vehicle for scrap 
or parts shall notify the Registrar that the motor vehicle is a 
non-repairable vehicle not more than 6 days after it becomes a 
non-repairable vehicle.
(2)  A salvage motor vehicle under subsection (1) becomes a 
non-repairable vehicle on the date of purchase, if the vehicle was 
purchased for scrap or parts, or at the time when the person 
commences to destroy or dismantle the vehicle.
Division 2 
Sale of Salvage, Out of Province, 
Used Motor Vehicles
Sale of salvage motor vehicle
13   A person shall not sell a motor vehicle that is a salvage motor 
vehicle unless, before the sale,
	(a)	the person provides the buyer with a subsisting salvage motor 
vehicle inspection certificate for the motor vehicle, or
	(b)	the person provides the buyer with a written statement 
advising that the vehicle is a salvage motor vehicle for which 
there is no subsisting salvage motor vehicle inspection 
certificate.
Sale of out of province motor vehicle
14   A person shall not sell a motor vehicle that is an out of province 
motor vehicle unless, before the sale,
	(a)	the person provides the buyer with a subsisting out of 
province motor vehicle inspection certificate for the motor 
vehicle, or
	(b)	the person provides the buyer with a written statement 
advising that the motor vehicle is an out of province motor 
vehicle for which there is no subsisting out of province motor 
vehicle inspection certificate.
Sale of used motor vehicle
15(1)  Subject to subsection (2), a dealer in used motor vehicles shall, 
before entering into a contract to sell a used motor vehicle, give to the 
buyer a used motor vehicle certificate of mechanical fitness that 
contains the following:
	(a)	a statement identifying the type of motor vehicle as a truck, 
motor cycle, bus, van, light truck, automobile or other type of 
motor vehicle;
	(b)	a statement showing the make, model, year, vehicle 
identification number, odometer reading in kilometres or 
miles, licence plate number and province of registration of 
the vehicle;
	(c)	the name and address of the dealer selling the vehicle and the 
name of the person who issued the certificate;
	(d)	a statement that the certificate expires 14 days after the date 
on which it was issued;
	(e)	a statement certifying that at the time of sale the motor 
vehicle
	(i)	complies with the Vehicle Equipment Regulation 
(AR 322/2002), or
	(ii)	does not comply with the Vehicle Equipment Regulation 
(AR 322/2002) and containing a description of the items 
of equipment that are missing or do not comply with the 
Vehicle Equipment Regulation (AR 322/2002);
	(f)	the signature of the person who issued the certificate;
	(g)	the date the certificate was issued.
(2)  Subsection (1) does not apply to a used motor vehicle sold by a 
dealer
	(a)	to another dealer, or
	(b)	to a person or partnership engaged in the business of 
repairing, dismantling or wrecking motor vehicles.
Expiry of certificate
16   A dealer's certificate of mechanical fitness provided under section 
15(1) for a used motor vehicle expires 14 days after the date on which 
it was issued.
Application
17   Sections 14 and 15 do not apply to a salvage motor vehicle.
Part 2 
Vehicle Inspection
Division 1 
Requirements for Vehicle 
Inspection Certificates
Registration of salvage or out of province 
motor vehicle or unsafe vehicle
18(1)  A person who applies to the Registrar for a certificate of 
registration for a salvage motor vehicle shall provide a subsisting 
salvage motor vehicle inspection certificate in respect of that motor 
vehicle.
(2)  A person who applies to the Registrar for a certificate of 
registration for an out of province motor vehicle shall provide a 
subsisting out of province motor vehicle inspection certificate in 
respect of that motor vehicle.
(3)  A person who applies to the Registrar for a certificate of 
registration for an unsafe vehicle shall provide a subsisting salvage 
motor vehicle inspection certificate in respect of that vehicle.
(4)  A person shall not register a salvage or out of province motor 
vehicle or an unsafe vehicle if there is no subsisting certificate issued 
for the vehicle.
Operation of commercial vehicle
19(1)  A person shall not operate a commercial vehicle on a highway 
unless
	(a)	the vehicle has been inspected under this Regulation and a 
certificate and decal have been issued for that vehicle,
	(b)	the original copy of the certificate is located within the 
commercial vehicle for which it was issued,
	(c)	the decal is securely affixed to the commercial vehicle for 
which it was issued in accordance with the procedures set out 
in the applicable Vehicle Inspection Manual, and
	(d)	the certificate and decal have not expired, in accordance with 
section 30(1)(b) in the case of a commercial vehicle that is 
not a bus or section 30(1)(c) in the case of a bus, or been 
revoked, suspended or cancelled.
(2)  Notwithstanding subsection (1)(b), in the case of a vehicle that is a 
converter dolly, the original copy of the certificate shall be located
	(a)	at the principal place of business of the owner of the 
converter dolly for which it is issued, or
	(b)	within the vehicle that is towing the converter dolly.
Other vehicles
20(1)  A person shall not operate a vehicle under an Operating 
Authority Certificate issued pursuant to the Commercial Vehicle 
Certificate and Insurance Regulation (AR 314/2002) on a highway 
unless
	(a)	the vehicle has been inspected under this Regulation and a 
commercial vehicle inspection certificate and decal have 
been issued for that vehicle,
	(b)	the original copy of the certificate is located within the 
vehicle for which it was issued,
	(c)	the decal is securely affixed to the vehicle for which it was 
issued in accordance with the procedures set out in the 
applicable Vehicle Inspection Manual, and
	(d)	the certificate and decal have not expired in accordance with 
section 30(1)(c) or been revoked, suspended or cancelled.
(2)  This Regulation, subject to any necessary modifications, applies
	(a)	to the vehicle and to the owner, operator and driver of the 
vehicle referred to in subsection (1), and
	(b)	to the completion and affixing of a commercial vehicle 
inspection certificate, decal and record of inspection by a 
technician and the issuing of the certificate and decal by a 
licensee for a vehicle referred to in subsection (1) as a result 
of the inspection required under that subsection.
Production of certificate on request
21(1)  On the request of the Registrar, an investigator or a peace 
officer, the driver of a commercial vehicle shall forthwith produce for 
inspection by the Registrar, the investigator or the peace officer, as the 
case may be, the original certificate issued for that vehicle.
(2)  Notwithstanding subsection (1) and section 19 or 20, a person may 
operate a commercial vehicle on a highway without a subsisting 
certificate or decal for the sole purpose of taking the commercial 
vehicle directly to a facility in order to have it inspected and a 
certificate issued for it.
(3)  Where the commercial vehicle referred to under subsection (1) is a 
converter dolly and the original of the certificate is not located in the 
vehicle that is towing the converter dolly, the driver of the commercial 
vehicle shall produce the original certificate for inspection by the 
Registrar, the investigator or the peace officer as soon as practicable.
Division 2 
Vehicle Inspection Requirements
Adoption of manuals
22(1)  The Vehicle Inspection Program Manuals of Vehicle Inspection 
Methods and Standards established and amended from time to time by 
the Registrar are adopted and apply to the conducting of inspections 
and the completing and issuing of certificates under this Regulation.
(2)  The Facility Operating Manuals established and amended from 
time to time by the Registrar are adopted and apply to the operation of 
a facility and the issuing of certificates by a facility under this 
Regulation.
Compliance with vehicle inspection manuals
23(1)  A technician shall conduct the appropriate inspections set out in 
the applicable Vehicle Inspection Manual for the type of vehicle before 
completing a certificate for and, if applicable, affixing a decal to the 
vehicle.
(2)  A vehicle shall pass the appropriate inspections set out in the 
applicable Vehicle Inspection Manual for the type of vehicle before a 
technician may complete a certificate for and, if applicable, affix a 
decal to the vehicle.
Prohibition
24   A person shall not conceal damage to or inadequate repair of the 
parts of a vehicle that are required to be inspected under this 
Regulation.
Supplying certificates
25(1)  The Registrar may provide one or more types of sequentially 
numbered certificates and decals to the licensee of a facility.
(2)  The Registrar may direct a licensee to purchase printed materials 
specified by the Registrar from a person authorized by the Registrar to 
provide those materials.
(3)  A person shall not issue a certificate or a decal at a facility that has 
not been provided to the facility by the Registrar under subsection (1) 
or purchased from a person authorized by the Registrar in accordance 
with subsection (2).
(4)  Any payment made under subsection (2) is not refundable.
Unissued certificate
26(1)  A person shall not have an unissued certificate or decal in the 
person's possession unless the person is the licensee of the facility to 
which the certificate or decal has been provided by the Registrar or 
supplied by a person authorized by the Registrar.
(2)  Notwithstanding subsection (1), a licensee may provide a 
technician with an unissued certificate or decal for the purpose of 
completing the certificate or affixing the decal.
Issuing a certificate
27(1)  A licensee shall not issue a certificate or decal for a vehicle 
unless the vehicle has passed an inspection conducted in accordance 
with the applicable Vehicle Inspection Manual and this Regulation.
(2)  A licensee shall ensure that a technician completes a certificate or 
affixes a decal only in accordance with the procedures set out in the 
Facility Operating Manual, the applicable Vehicle Inspection Manual 
and this Regulation.
(3)  A technician shall conduct an inspection of a vehicle in accordance 
with the applicable Vehicle Inspection Manual and must be satisfied 
that the items required to be inspected are safe to operate on a highway 
before the technician completes a certificate for or affixes a decal to 
the vehicle.
(4)  If, on completion of a vehicle inspection, the technician is not 
satisfied that the vehicle complies with the requirements of the 
applicable Vehicle Inspection Program Manual, the technician shall 
refuse to complete a certificate for or affix a decal to the vehicle.
(5)  A technician shall not complete a certificate for a vehicle if
	(a)	the person submitting the vehicle for inspection does not 
provide the technician with the information required by the 
technician,
	(b)	the technician is not authorized under the technician's licence 
to inspect that type of vehicle,
	(c)	the technician does not have the proper tools needed to 
conduct the inspection on that type of vehicle, or
	(d)	the facility at which the inspection was conducted is not 
licensed to inspect that type of vehicle.
(6)  Without limiting the generality of subsection (5)(a), a licensee 
shall not allow a technician to complete, and a technician shall not 
complete, a salvage motor vehicle or an out of province motor vehicle 
inspection certificate for a motor vehicle if the person submitting the 
motor vehicle for inspection does not provide the technician with a 
Request for Inspection Form issued by an Alberta registry agent.
(7)  A technician shall not
	(a)	sign a blank certificate, or
	(b)	complete or sign a certificate for a vehicle before concluding 
the inspection of the vehicle.
(8)  Where a vehicle is inspected or re-inspected under this Regulation, 
a technician may conduct tests in respect of the vehicle or any 
component of the vehicle.
Completing a certificate
28(1)  A technician who completes a certificate pursuant to section 27 
shall
	(a)	legibly complete the information required on the certificate 
according to the procedures set out in the applicable Vehicle 
Inspection Manual,
	(b)	state the date on which the certificate comes into effect,
	(c)	sign the original certificate,
	(d)	give the original certificate to the licensee to issue to the 
person who submitted the vehicle for inspection, and
	(e)	in the case where the certificate is being issued for a 
commercial vehicle, affix a decal bearing the date on which 
the certificate expires to the vehicle in the manner set out in 
the applicable Vehicle Inspection Manual.
(2)  The licensee shall retain a copy of the certificate issued pursuant to 
section 27 on file in the facility and send a copy of the certificate to the 
Registrar not more than 7 days after the date of inspection, in the 
manner provided by the Registrar.
Issuing record of inspection
29(1)  On completing the inspection of a vehicle, whether or not the 
vehicle has passed the inspection, the technician shall
	(a)	complete a record of inspection for the vehicle in accordance 
with the applicable Vehicle Inspection Manual,
	(b)	sign the original record of inspection, and
	(c)	give the original of the record of inspection to the licensee to 
give to the person who submitted the vehicle for inspection.
(2)  The licensee shall
	(a)	give to the person who submitted the vehicle for inspection 
the original of the record of inspection, and
	(b)	retain a copy of each issued record of inspection in the  
facility.
Expiry of certificate
30(1)  A certificate and the decal associated with it, if applicable, 
come into effect on the date that the certificate is issued and expire at 
the conclusion of
	(a)	14 days in the case of a salvage motor vehicle or an out of 
province motor vehicle,
	(b)	in the case of a commercial vehicle other than a bus, the 12th 
month from the month in which the certificate and decal were 
issued, or
	(c)	in the case of a bus, the 6th month from the month in which 
the certificate and decal were issued.
(2)  A decal is not subsisting during the period that the certificate in 
respect of which it was issued is not subsisting.
Re-inspection
31(1)  A technician may complete a certificate for and affix a decal, if 
applicable, to a vehicle that failed an inspection under section 27(4), 33 
or 34 if
	(a)	the vehicle and the record of inspection are submitted for 
re-inspection to the technician not more than 10 days after 
the failed inspection or the revocation of the certificate, as 
the case may be,
	(b)	the items that failed inspection as noted on the record of 
inspection have been repaired, replaced or otherwise 
rectified, and
	(c)	the technician has re-inspected the items that failed 
inspection and is satisfied that they meet the requirements of 
the relevant Vehicle Inspection Manual and that the vehicle 
is safe to operate on a highway.
(2)  A technician is not required to re-inspect any item that did not fail 
inspection according to the record of inspection for the purpose of 
completing a certificate for and affixing a decal, if applicable, to a 
vehicle under subsection (1).
(3)  Sections 27 to 29 apply to a re-inspection of a vehicle under this 
section.
Direction to be inspected
32(1)  The Registrar may direct the owner or driver of a vehicle to 
have the vehicle inspected by a technician or an investigator if
	(a)	a certificate has been issued for the vehicle, and
	(b)	the Registrar is of the opinion that the vehicle is not safe to 
operate on a highway or the certificate should not have been 
issued for any reason.
(2)  The Registrar may direct a technician or an investigator to inspect 
a vehicle if
	(a)	a certificate has been issued for the vehicle, and
	(b)	the Registrar is of the opinion that the vehicle is not safe to 
operate on a highway or the certificate should not have been 
issued for any reason.
(3)  An owner or driver of a vehicle shall have the vehicle inspected by 
a technician or an investigator, as directed by the Registrar, not more 
than 5 days after the Registrar gives a direction under subsection (2).
Revocation of salvage or out of province motor 
vehicle inspection certificate
33(1)  Where a vehicle for which a salvage motor vehicle or an out of 
province motor vehicle inspection certificate has been issued is 
inspected by an investigator pursuant to a direction given under section 
32(1) or (2) and the vehicle does not pass the inspection, or if an 
investigator concludes that the certificate should not have been issued, 
the investigator may revoke the certificate, if the certificate is 
subsisting, or if the certificate is no longer subsisting, may deem the 
certificate never to have been issued, and shall advise the owner or 
driver of the vehicle of the decision.
(2)  Where a vehicle for which a salvage motor vehicle or an out of 
province motor vehicle inspection certificate has been issued is 
inspected by a technician pursuant to a direction given under section 
32(1) or (2) and the vehicle does not pass the inspection, the technician 
shall
	(a)	report the result of the inspection to an investigator 
immediately, and
	(b)	complete a record of inspection in accordance with section 
29.
(3)  On receipt of a report from a technician under subsection (2), an 
investigator may, if the certificate is subsisting, revoke the certificate 
issued in respect of the vehicle, or if the certificate is no longer 
subsisting, deem the certificate never to have been issued, and shall 
notify the technician of the decision.
(4)  On receipt of a notice from the investigator under subsection (3) 
that the certificate issued in respect of a vehicle is revoked, or deemed 
never to have been issued, the technician shall advise the owner or 
driver of the vehicle of the decision of the investigator.
(5)  Where a direction has been given under section 32(2) in respect of 
a vehicle for which a salvage motor vehicle or an out of province 
motor vehicle inspection certificate has been issued and the Registrar 
is satisfied that the vehicle has not been submitted to a technician or an 
investigator within the 5-day period, the Registrar may, if the 
certificate is subsisting, revoke the certificate issued in respect of the 
vehicle, and if the certificate is no longer subsisting, deem the 
certificate never to have been issued, and shall advise the owner or 
driver of the vehicle of the decision.
(6)  If a certificate is revoked or deemed never to have been issued 
under this section, the owner or driver must return the certificate to the 
Registrar immediately.
(7)  If a certificate is revoked or deemed never to have been issued 
under this section, or is revoked or declared invalid under section 35, 
the Registrar may change the status of the motor vehicle that appears 
on its registration
	(a)	to the status assigned to it prior to the issuing of the 
certificate, or
	(b)	to a status in another category listed in section 8 that in the 
opinion of the Registrar is appropriate in the circumstances.
Revocation of commercial vehicle inspection certificate
34(1)  Where a vehicle for which a commercial vehicle inspection 
certificate has been issued is inspected by an investigator pursuant to a 
direction given under section 32(1) or (2) and the vehicle does not pass 
the inspection, or if an investigator concludes that the certificate should 
not have been issued, the investigator may revoke the commercial 
vehicle inspection certificate issued in respect of the vehicle and, if the 
certificate is revoked, shall advise the owner or driver that the 
certificate for the vehicle has been revoked.
(2)  Where a vehicle for which a commercial vehicle inspection 
certificate has been issued is inspected by a technician pursuant to a 
direction given under section 32(1) or (2) and the vehicle does not pass 
the inspection, the technician shall
	(a)	report the result of the inspection to an investigator 
immediately, and
	(b)	complete a record of inspection in accordance with section 
29.
(3)  On receipt of a report from a technician under subsection (2), an 
investigator may revoke the commercial vehicle inspection certificate 
issued in respect of the vehicle and, if the certificate is revoked, shall 
notify the technician of the revocation.
(4)  On receipt of a notice from the investigator under subsection (3) 
that the certificate issued in respect of a vehicle is revoked, the 
technician shall advise the owner or driver of the vehicle of the 
revocation of the certificate.
(5)  Where a direction has been given under section 32(2) in respect of 
a vehicle for which a commercial vehicle inspection certificate has 
been issued and the Registrar is satisfied that the vehicle has not been 
submitted to a technician or an investigator for inspection within 5 
days from the day on which the direction was given, the Registrar may 
revoke the certificate issued in respect of that vehicle and, if the 
certificate is revoked, shall advise the owner or driver of the vehicle of 
the revocation.
(6)  Where a certificate is revoked, an investigator, or a technician at 
the request of an investigator, shall
	(a)	take possession of the certificate and send it to the Registrar 
within 25 days of the date of revocation, and
	(b)	remove from the vehicle and destroy the decal affixed to the 
vehicle in respect of the certificate.
(7)  Notwithstanding subsection (6), where a certificate is revoked and 
an investigator or a technician, as the case may be, is unable to take 
possession of it or to remove and destroy the decal, the owner or 
operator of the vehicle in respect of which the revocation is made shall, 
at the request of the Registrar, the investigator or the technician,
	(a)	deliver the certificate to the person making the request, and
	(b)	remove from the vehicle and destroy the decal affixed to the 
vehicle in respect of the certificate.
(8)  The revocation of a certificate is not affected by any failure of an 
investigator or a technician, as the case may be, to take possession of 
the certificate or to remove and destroy the decal.
Revocation of a certificate
35   The Registrar may revoke or declare invalid a certificate if
	(a)	it was issued contrary to this Regulation, the applicable 
Vehicle Inspection Manual or the Facility Operating Manual,
	(b)	it was issued under fraudulent or false pretences, or
	(c)	it is reported missing or stolen.
Recognition of other certificates
36(1)  If the Registrar is satisfied that a jurisdiction outside Alberta 
operates a vehicle inspection program for salvage motor vehicles or 
out of province motor vehicles that is substantially similar to the 
vehicle inspection program established under this Regulation and the 
applicable Vehicle Inspection Manual for the type of motor vehicle 
being inspected, a subsisting document issued in the other jurisdiction 
that is substantially similar to a salvage motor vehicle inspection 
certificate or an out of province motor vehicle inspection certificate is 
deemed to be a certificate issued under this Regulation for the same 
type of vehicle, subject to any terms and conditions that the Registrar 
considers appropriate.
(2)  Subsection (1) does not apply to a document issued by another 
jurisdiction if that jurisdiction is not the jurisdiction in which the 
vehicle is registered.
(3)  The Registrar may deem a subsisting certificate issued under this 
Regulation, subject to any terms and conditions that the Registrar 
considers appropriate, to be an out of province motor vehicle 
inspection certificate issued under this Regulation for the same type of 
vehicle.
(4)  For the purposes of this Regulation, a document that is deemed to 
be a certificate under subsection (1) or (3) expires on the earlier of
	(a)	90 days from the date on which the document was originally 
issued, and
	(b)	the date on which the document is scheduled to expire.
Recognition of other certificates for 
commercial vehicles
37(1)  If the Registrar is satisfied that a jurisdiction outside Alberta 
operates an inspection program for commercial vehicles that is 
substantially similar to the vehicle inspection program established 
under this Regulation and the applicable Vehicle Inspection Manual 
for the type of vehicle being inspected, a subsisting certificate and 
decal issued in the other jurisdiction that is substantially similar to a 
commercial vehicle inspection certificate and decal is deemed to be a 
commercial vehicle inspection certificate and decal issued under this 
Regulation for the same type of vehicle, subject to any terms and 
conditions that the Registrar considers appropriate.
(2)  Where a commercial vehicle is operated in Alberta pursuant to 
subsection (1), this Regulation, subject to any necessary modifications, 
applies in respect of the certificate and decal, or either of them, in the 
same manner as if they were a certificate or decal, as the case may be, 
that was issued under this Regulation.
Part 3 
Licences
Division 1 
Background Check
Background check
38(1)  In this Part, "background check" means an inquiry or 
investigation, including a criminal record check, to enable the 
Registrar to determine the eligibility of an applicant to be approved 
for, or a licensee or technician to hold, a facility licence or technician 
licence under this Regulation and includes but is not limited to an 
inquiry or investigation relating to the honesty and integrity and 
competence of any of the following:
	(a)	the applicant for a facility licence or the licensee, or a 
director, officer, partner, manager or employee of the 
applicant or licensee, or any person who may exercise 
direction, control or management of the facility;
	(b)	the applicant for or the holder of a technician licence.
(2)  The Registrar may require or conduct any background check that 
the Registrar considers necessary or appropriate and may collect 
relevant information about the person subject to the background check 
from any person or organization.
(3)  A person fails to pass a criminal record check component of a 
background check if the person has at any time been charged or 
convicted of
	(a)	an offence under the Criminal Code (Canada) or the Excise 
Act (Canada), or
	(b)	an offence under a foreign Act or regulation that, in the 
Registrar's opinion, is substantially similar to an offence 
referred to in clause (a),
and in the Registrar's opinion the offence is sufficiently serious that it 
may detract from the integrity with which vehicle inspections are to be 
conducted in Alberta or may be detrimental to the orderly or lawful 
conduct of activities authorized by a licence issued under this 
Regulation.
(4)  A person fails to pass a background check if
	(a)	the person fails to pass a criminal record check under 
subsection (3),
	(b)	the person has at any time been charged with or convicted of 
an offence under the Act or any other enactment and in the 
Registrar's opinion the offence is sufficiently serious that it 
may detract from the integrity with which vehicle inspections 
are to be conducted in Alberta or may be detrimental to the 
orderly or lawful conduct of activities authorized by a licence 
issued under this Regulation, or
	(c)	the Registrar, based on the results of the background check, 
is of the opinion that the person does not have the honesty, 
integrity or competence to perform vehicle inspections in 
accordance with this Regulation.
Division 2 
Vehicle Inspection Facilities
Facility licences
39(1)  A person shall not operate a facility as a vehicle inspection 
facility unless
	(a)	the Registrar has issued a licence in respect of the facility for 
one or more types of vehicle,
	(b)	the facility licence is subsisting, and
	(c)	the facility meets the requirements set out in the Schedule.
(2)  A facility licence authorizes the licensee to operate a facility in 
accordance with this Regulation and the terms and conditions of the 
licence.
Application
40(1)  On receiving an application for a facility licence from an 
applicant in the form and manner provided for by the Registrar, the 
Registrar may issue a facility licence to the applicant if the Registrar is 
satisfied that
	(a)	the proposed facility is suitable and inspections of the type of 
vehicle specified in the application can be properly 
conducted in the proposed facility,
	(b)	the proposed facility meets the requirements set out in the 
Schedule,
	(c)	the persons referred to in subsection (2) have passed the 
background check referred to in section 38,
	(d)	the proposed facility has been granted the relevant 
automotive business licence under the Automotive Business 
Regulation (AR 192/99),
	(e)	the applicant has acquired the applicable Facility Operating 
Manual and registered the Manual with the Registrar, and
	(f)	the applicant will operate the facility in accordance with the 
Facility Operating Manual and this Regulation.
(2)  The Registrar may require a person who applies for a facility 
licence, or a director, officer, partner, manager or employee of the 
person making the application, to submit a copy of a criminal record 
check to the Registrar.
(3)  The Registrar may issue a facility licence under subsection (1) that 
authorizes the licensee to conduct inspections of the type or types of 
vehicle specified in the facility licence.
(4)  The Registrar may issue a facility licence under subsection (1) 
subject to the terms and conditions the Registrar considers appropriate.
(5)  Subsection (1)(d) does not apply to a carrier that is applying for a 
facility licence for the sole purpose of inspecting vehicles operated by 
the carrier.
(6)  The Registrar may refuse to issue a facility licence to an applicant 
or to allow a licensee to continue to hold a facility licence if the 
applicant or the licensee, or a director, officer, partner, manager or 
employee of the applicant or licensee, or any person who may exercise 
direction, control or management of the facility, fails to pass a 
background check.
(7)  The Registrar may suspend or cancel a facility licence if the 
facility fails to meet the requirements set out in the Schedule.
Renewal, addition or deletion
41(1)  A licensee whose facility licence is subsisting may apply in the 
form provided by the Registrar
	(a)	to renew the facility licence, or
	(b)	to add to, or delete from, the facility licence a type of vehicle.
(2)  If the Registrar is satisfied that the licensee and the facility meet 
the requirements under section 40, the Registrar may
	(a)	renew a facility licence, or
	(b)	add a type of vehicle to the facility licence.
(3)  The Registrar may delete a type of vehicle from a facility licence if 
requested to do so under subsection (1) by a licensee whose licence is 
subsisting.
(4)  Section 40 applies to the renewal of a facility licence or to the 
addition of a type of vehicle to a facility licence by the Registrar under 
this section.
Expiry
42(1)  A facility licence expires on a date that is determined by the 
Registrar, whether the licence is issued for the first time or is renewed.
(2)  The expiry date of a facility licence does not change only because 
a type of vehicle is added to or deleted from the licence by the 
Registrar under section 41.
Facility requirements
43(1)  The Registrar may direct an applicant under section 40 or 41 to 
allow a person approved by the Registrar to enter and determine 
whether the facility that is the subject of the application meets the 
requirements of this Regulation.
(2)  The Registrar may direct the applicant to pay the cost of work 
carried out under subsection (1).
Posted licence
44(1)  The licensee shall post the facility licence in a conspicuous 
place to which the public has access.
(2)  The licensee shall make the terms and conditions under which the 
facility licence is issued available to the public on request.
(3)  The licensee shall remove a posted facility licence if it is not 
subsisting.
Posted shop rate
45(1)  The licensee of a salvage motor vehicle inspection facility or an 
out of province motor vehicle inspection facility shall post a schedule 
of rates charged by a licensee for an inspection or re-inspection of a 
salvage motor vehicle or an out of province motor vehicle.
(2)  The schedule of rates shall be posted in the facility in a 
conspicuous place to which the public has access.
(3)  The licensee shall not charge more than the posted rate for an 
inspection or re-inspection of a salvage motor vehicle or an out of 
province motor vehicle.
Division 3 
Vehicle Inspection Technicians
Technician licences
46(1)  A person shall not
	(a)	inspect a vehicle for the purpose of completing a certificate 
for or affixing a decal to the vehicle, or
	(b)	sign or complete a certificate for or affix a decal to a vehicle,
unless the person
	(c)	holds a subsisting technician licence issued by the Registrar 
as a vehicle inspection technician for that type of vehicle, and
	(d)	has inspected the vehicle in accordance with section 27.
(2)  A technician licence authorizes the licence holder to inspect a 
vehicle in accordance with this Regulation and the terms and 
conditions of the licence.
Application
47(1)  On receiving an application for a technician licence from a 
person in the form provided for by the Registrar, the Registrar may 
issue a technician licence to the person if the Registrar is satisfied that 
the person
	(a)	has complied with any requirements of the Registrar under 
subsection (2) regarding training and competency,
	(b)	holds a subsisting trade certificate that in the opinion of the 
Registrar qualifies the person to conduct inspections of the 
type of vehicle specified in the application for the technician 
licence,
	(c)	has passed the background check referred to in section 38,
	(d)	has acquired the Vehicle Inspection Manual for the type of 
vehicle specified in the application for the licence, and 
registered the Manual with the Registrar, and
	(e)	will inspect vehicles in accordance with the Vehicle 
Inspection Manual referred to in clause (d) and this 
Regulation.
(2)  Before issuing a technician licence under subsection (1), the 
Registrar may require the applicant for the technician licence to 
provide proof acceptable to the Registrar of the applicant's ability to 
inspect the type of vehicle specified in the application in one or more 
of the following ways:
	(a)	successful completion of a vehicle inspection training 
program that has been approved by the Registrar in respect of 
the type of vehicle specified in the application;
	(b)	achievement of at least a minimum score set by the Registrar 
in an examination that has been approved by the Registrar to 
determine competency to inspect the type of vehicle specified 
in the application;
	(c)	demonstration of continuing competency according to criteria 
that may be established by the Registrar under section 74 in 
respect of the type of vehicle specified in the application.
(3)  The Registrar may require an applicant for a technician licence 
under subsection (1) to submit a copy of a criminal record check to the 
Registrar.
(4)  The Registrar may issue a technician licence under subsection (1) 
authorizing a person to conduct inspections and complete certificates 
and affix decals in respect of the type of vehicle specified in the 
licence.
(5)  The Registrar may issue a technician licence under subsection (1) 
subject to the terms and conditions the Registrar considers appropriate.
Background check
48   The Registrar may refuse to issue a technician licence to an 
applicant under section 47, or to allow a technician to continue to hold 
a licence under that section, if the applicant or technician fails to pass a 
background check.
Renewal, addition and deletion
49(1)  A technician who holds a subsisting technician licence under 
this Regulation may apply in the form provided by the Registrar
	(a)	to renew the technician licence, or
	(b)	to add to, or delete from, the technician licence a type of 
vehicle.
(2)  If the Registrar is satisfied that the applicant meets the 
requirements under section 47 and can demonstrate continuing 
competency under section 74, the Registrar may
	(a)	renew the applicant's technician licence, or
	(b)	add a type of vehicle to the applicant's technician licence.
(3)  The Registrar may delete a type of vehicle from a technician 
licence as requested by an applicant under subsection (1).
(4)  Section 47 applies to the renewal of a technician licence or to the 
addition of a type of vehicle to a technician licence by the Registrar 
under this section.
Expiry
50   A technician licence expires,
	(a)	if the licence is the technician's first licence and the 
technician's next birthday is 6 months or less after the 
effective date specified in the licence, 5 years from the 
technician's next birthday,
	(b)	if the licence is the technician's first licence and the 
technician's next birthday is more than 6 months after the 
effective date specified in the licence, 4 years from the 
technician's next birthday, and
	(c)	if the technician licence is renewed, 5 years after the expiry 
date of the original licence.
Training and examination
51(1)  The Registrar may require an applicant under section 47 or 49 
to
	(a)	successfully complete a vehicle inspection training program 
approved by the Registrar in respect of a type of vehicle, or
	(b)	pass an examination approved by the Registrar to determine 
competency in respect of a type of vehicle.
(2)  The Registrar may require an applicant to pay the cost of a training 
program or examination under subsection (1).
Production of licence
52   A technician shall carry his or her technician licence and produce 
it immediately for inspection when requested to do so by
	(a)	the Registrar,
	(b)	an investigator,
	(c)	a person approved by the Registrar to conduct an audit of a 
facility under section 43,
	(d)	a person who submits a vehicle to be inspected under this 
Regulation, or
	(e)	a licensee who engages or proposes to engage the services of 
the technician.
Division 4 
Facility and Technician Application Fees
Fees
53(1)  The Minister may by order set the application fee for a facility 
licence or a technician licence under this Regulation.
(2)  Any application fee paid under this Regulation is not refundable.
Exemption from fee
54   The following are exempt from paying an application fee under 
this Regulation if the licence that would otherwise be subject to the fee 
is used solely for the purpose of inspecting vehicles operated by the 
organization:
	(a)	the Crown in right of Canada;
	(b)	the Crown in right of Alberta;
	(c)	a municipal authority as defined in the Municipal 
Government Act;
	(d)	a board as defined in the School Act;
	(e)	a band as defined in the Indian Act (Canada);
	(f)	the General Council or a settlement as defined in the Metis 
Settlements Act.
Part 4 
Administration and Enforcement
Division 1 
Licence Suspension and Cancellation
Automatic suspension and reinstatement
55(1)  A technician licence is automatically
	(a)	suspended, or
	(b)	restricted with respect to the inspection of a type of vehicle,
on the date that the trade certificate the technician is required to hold to 
inspect that type of vehicle is suspended or cancelled under the 
Apprenticeship and Industry Training Act.
(2)  A technician licence suspended under subsection (1) is reinstated, 
and a technician licence that has been restricted under subsection (1) 
has its restriction removed, on the date that the trade certificate the 
technician is required to hold under the Apprenticeship and Industry 
Training Act is reinstated, unless the licence expires before that date.
(3)  A technician shall notify the Registrar in writing immediately if 
the technician's trade certificate is suspended, cancelled or reinstated.
Criminal offences
56(1)  The Registrar may suspend a facility licence or a technician 
licence for one or more specified periods or pending the final 
disposition of an appeal by the courts if
	(a)	the licensee of the facility or a director, officer, partner, 
manager or employee of the licensee, or the technician, is 
charged with
	(i)	an offence under the Criminal Code (Canada) or the 
Excise Act (Canada), or
	(ii)	an offence under a foreign Act or regulation that, in the 
Registrar's opinion, is substantially similar to an 
offence referred to in subclause (i),
		and
	(b)	the Registrar is of the opinion that the licence should be 
suspended.
(2)  The Registrar may suspend or cancel a facility licence or a 
technician licence, or prohibit a person from holding a facility licence 
or technician licence, if
	(a)	the licensee of the facility or a director, officer, partner, 
manager or employee of the licensee, or the technician, is 
convicted of
	(i)	an offence under the Criminal Code (Canada) or the 
Excise Act (Canada), or
	(ii)	an offence under a foreign Act or regulation that, in the 
Registrar's opinion, is substantially similar to an 
offence referred to in subclause (i),
		and
	(b)	the conviction is final by reason of the expiry of the time for 
appeal without an appeal's having been made or the final 
disposition of the appeal by the courts.
(3)  The Registrar may suspend or cancel a facility licence or a 
technician licence, or prohibit a person from holding a facility licence 
or technician licence, if
	(a)	the licensee or the technician made a false statement in the 
application for the licence or an application for an addition to 
or renewal of the licence,
	(b)	the licensee or the technician provides false information to 
the Registrar,
	(c)	the licensee or the technician refuses to provide information 
to the Registrar as required under this Regulation, or
	(d)	the licensee or the technician contravenes
	(i)	this Regulation, the Act or any other enactment,
	(ii)	a direction of the Registrar made under this Regulation,
	(iii)	a term or condition of the licence,
	(iv)	the Facility Operating Manual in the case of a licensee 
or an employee of the licensee, or
	(v)	the Vehicle Inspection Manual in the case of a 
technician.
(4)  The Registrar may at any time require or conduct a background 
check on a person referred to in subsection (1), (2) or (3) in any 
manner determined to be appropriate by the Registrar, including the 
collection of relevant information about the person subject to the 
background check from any person or organization.
Investigation of facility or technician
57(1)  The Registrar may authorize one or more persons to carry out 
the functions of an investigator under this Regulation.
(2)  The Registrar may direct an investigator to investigate a facility 
and the work carried out in the facility and to report the results of the 
investigation to the Registrar if, in the opinion of the Registrar,
	(a)	the facility is no longer suitable or equipped to perform 
inspections for the types of motor vehicles specified in the 
licence,
	(b)	the licensee is not operating the facility in accordance with 
the licence or the Facility Operating Manual,
	(c)	the facility's licensee profile, or carrier profile if the facility 
is a carrier, shows evidence of unacceptable safety risk,
	(d)	a technician at the facility is failing to carry out inspections 
in accordance with the applicable Vehicle Inspection Manual 
or this Regulation,
	(e)	the licensee of the facility is failing to comply with this 
Regulation, or
	(f)	an investigation should be performed for any reason relating 
to motor vehicle safety that appears to the Registrar to be 
sufficient.
(3)  The Registrar may direct that an investigator investigate the work 
done by a technician and report the results of the investigation to the 
Registrar if, in the opinion of the Registrar,
	(a)	the technician has not carried out or is not carrying out 
inspections of motor vehicles in accordance with the terms of 
the technician's licence, the applicable Vehicle Inspection 
Manual and this Regulation,
	(b)	the technician does not hold a subsisting trade certificate that 
is required for the inspections the technician is carrying out,
	(c)	there is evidence of potential safety risk shown in the 
technician's profile,
	(d)	the technician is not complying with this Regulation, or
	(e)	an investigation should be performed for any reason relating 
to motor vehicle safety that appears to the Registrar to be 
sufficient.
(4)  An investigator may, without prior notice, during a facility's 
business hours, enter and investigate the facility or a technician in 
accordance with the direction of the Registrar under subsection (2) or 
(3).
Audit
58(1)  The Registrar or an investigator at the direction of the Registrar 
may without prior notice, during a facility's business hours, enter and 
audit the facility or a technician to determine whether the facility or the 
technician is complying with this Regulation.
(2)  An investigator who enters and audits a facility or audits a 
technician under subsection (1) shall report the results of the audit to 
the Registrar.
Submission of information
59(1)  The Registrar may by written notice direct the licensee of a 
facility to submit any relevant information to a person authorized by 
the Registrar for the purpose of reviewing and reporting the licensee's 
and the facility's compliance with the terms and conditions of the 
licence or this Regulation.
(2)  The Registrar may by written notice direct a technician to submit 
any relevant information to a person authorized by the Registrar for the 
purpose of reviewing and reporting the technician's continuing 
competency to hold a licence or compliance with the terms and 
conditions of the licence or this Regulation.
Cooperation with directions
60   A licensee or a technician shall comply with a direction given by 
the Registrar, an investigator or a person authorized by the Registrar 
who is conducting an investigation, an audit or a review under this 
Regulation.
Suspension, cancellation or prohibition
61(1)  The Registrar may suspend or cancel a licence or prohibit a 
person from holding a licence under this Regulation
	(a)	on receiving a report under section 57, 58 or 59, and
	(b)	after considering the representations, if any, that may be 
made by the holder of the licence or the person under section 
62.
(2)  The Registrar may include any terms and conditions that the 
Registrar considers appropriate in the licence suspension, cancellation 
or prohibition.
Show cause
62(1)  On receiving
	(a)	information pertaining to circumstances set out in section 
56(1), (2) or (3), or
	(b)	a report under section 57, 58, 59 or 68(2),
and if the Registrar is of the opinion that a facility licence or technician 
licence should be suspended or cancelled, or a person should be 
prohibited from holding a licence under this Regulation, the Registrar 
shall give notice in writing to the licence holder or the person of the 
opportunity for the licence holder or person to show cause why the 
licence should not be suspended or cancelled, or the person should not 
be prohibited from holding a licence, at the time and place specified in 
the notice.
(2)  Subsection (1) does not apply if, in the opinion of the Registrar, 
the time required to effect the written notice and the opportunity to 
show cause may result in danger to the health or safety of the public.
Notice to licence holder
63(1)  If the Registrar under section 62 suspends or cancels a facility 
licence or technician licence or prohibits a person from holding a 
licence, the Registrar shall give 15 days' notice in writing to the 
licensee or technician or the person of the Registrar's decision.
(2)  The Registrar shall include in the notice the reasons for the 
suspension, cancellation or prohibition and shall advise the licensee or 
technician or the person to whom the notice is given of the right to 
appeal to the Board under section 42.1 of the Act.
(3)  Despite subsection (1), the Registrar may order that the suspension 
or cancellation of the licence takes effect immediately or sooner than 
15 days if in the opinion of the Registrar the requirement for 15 days' 
notice of the decision may result in danger to the health or safety of the 
public.
Return of documents
64(1)  A licensee whose facility licence has been suspended or 
cancelled shall return the following items to the Registrar or a person 
authorized by the Registrar not more than 7 days after being notified of 
the suspension or cancellation:
	(a)	the facility licence;
	(b)	all unissued certificates and decals issued to and in the 
possession of the licensee;
	(c)	all issued certificates revoked under this Regulation in the 
possession of the licensee;
	(d)	copies of other records maintained by the licensee under this 
Regulation, the Facility Operating Manual or Vehicle 
Inspection Manual as directed by the Registrar.
(2)  A technician whose technician licence has been suspended or 
cancelled shall return the following items to the Registrar or a person 
authorized by the Registrar not more than 7 days after being notified of 
the suspension or cancellation:
	(a)	the technician licence;
	(b)	all blank certificates in the possession of the technician;
	(c)	all completed certificates in the possession of the technician;
	(d)	all decals in the possession of the technician;
	(e)	copies of other records maintained by the technician under 
this Regulation, the Facility Operating Manual or Vehicle 
Inspection Manual as directed by the Registrar.
(3)  This section applies notwithstanding the right of a technician or a 
licensee to appeal the decision of the Registrar to the Board.
Removal of suspension, cancellation or prohibition
65(1)  The Registrar may remove the suspension or cancellation of a 
licence or the prohibition against holding a licence if the Registrar is 
satisfied that
	(a)	the reason for which the licence was suspended or cancelled 
or the prohibition was imposed no longer exists,
	(b)	in the case of a facility licence, the facility is suitable to 
conduct inspections for the types of vehicles specified in the 
facility licence,
	(c)	in the case of a technician licence, the technician is 
competent to conduct inspections for the types of vehicles 
specified in the technician licence, and
	(d)	the period of suspension or prohibition has expired.
(2)  For the purpose of satisfying the Registrar that the conditions set 
out in subsection (1)(b) and (c) have been met, the Registrar may 
require a licensee or technician to comply with
	(a)	sections 40(2) and 43 in the case of a facility licence, or
	(b)	sections 47(3) and 51 in the case of a technician licence.
Division 2 
Vehicle Safety Investigator Directive
Issuance of directive by investigator
66(1)  An investigator may issue a directive to a licensee of a facility 
or to a technician if the investigator has reason to believe the licensee 
or an employee of the licensee or the technician has contravened this 
Regulation.
(2)  A directive issued by an investigator shall be in writing and shall 
specify
	(a)	the nature of the contravention,
	(b)	the action that the licensee or technician shall take or cease, 
and the time period for doing so,
	(c)	whether or not the licensee or technician may continue to 
inspect vehicles under this Regulation while the directive is 
in effect,
	(d)	any other terms and conditions imposed by the investigator, 
and
	(e)	the right of the licensee or technician to whom the directive 
is issued to request a review of the directive by the Registrar.
(3)  An investigator shall specify a time limit up to a maximum of 14 
days in a directive under subsection (2)(b) requiring a licensee or 
technician to take or cease an action.
(4)  An investigator shall ensure that a copy of the directive is served 
on the licensee or the technician, or on the agent of the licensee, and 
shall provide a copy to the Registrar.
Compliance with directive
67(1)  Subject to subsection (2), a person who is served with a 
directive under section 66 shall comply with the directive.
(2)  The Registrar may confirm, vary or cancel a directive issued by an 
investigator.
Disposition of a directive
68(1)  If an investigator is satisfied that a directive issued under 
section 66 has been complied with, the investigator may, by notice in 
writing to the licensee or technician to whom the directive was issued, 
cancel the directive.
(2)  If an investigator finds that a licensee or technician to whom a 
directive was issued under section 66 has failed to comply with the 
directive, the investigator shall provide a report of this finding to the 
Registrar, and if the investigator does so, the investigator shall forward 
a copy of the report to the licensee or technician immediately.
(3)  On receiving a report of an investigator's findings under 
subsection (2), the Registrar may cancel or suspend a licence or 
prohibit a person from holding a licence under this Regulation, subject 
to any terms and conditions the Registrar considers appropriate, in 
accordance with sections 62 and 63.
Division 3 
Administrative Penalties
Contents of notice
69(1)  A notice of an administrative penalty imposed under section 
143 of the Act shall contain at least the following information:
	(a)	the name of the person on whom the administrative penalty is 
imposed;
	(b)	the section of this Regulation the person has contravened or 
failed to comply with;
	(c)	a brief description of the nature of the contravention or 
failure to comply identified under clause (b);
	(d)	the amount of the administrative penalty to be imposed;
	(e)	whether the penalty is fixed or accumulates for each day or 
part of a day that the contravention or failure to comply 
occurs or continues;
	(f)	the date on which the notice is issued;
	(g)	the date by which the penalty must be paid, unless the 
penalty is an accumulating penalty;
	(h)	a statement explaining the right of the person on whom the 
administrative penalty is imposed to appeal the 
administrative penalty to the Board, including the addresses 
to which the appeal is to be sent, how the appeal is to be 
made and the deadline for making the appeal.
(2)  The form of the notice of the administrative penalty referred to in 
subsection (1) shall be approved by the Registrar.
Determination of penalty amount
70(1)  The Registrar shall determine the amount of the administrative 
penalty to be imposed on a person after considering the following 
specific factors and the general considerations set out in subsection (2):
	(a)	the seriousness of the contravention;
	(b)	the nature of the facility or technician operation;
	(c)	whether a collision occurred or the danger that a collision 
could have occurred as a result of the contravention;
	(d)	the history of contraventions of this Regulation by the person 
on whom the administrative penalty is imposed;
	(e)	any other factor considered relevant by the Registrar.
(2)  The Registrar shall be guided by the following general 
considerations:
	(a)	the amount of the administrative penalty imposed should 
reflect the seriousness of the contravention;
	(b)	the greater the danger that a collision could have occurred, or 
the greater the degree of risk to people or property that did 
occur, or the fact that a collision did occur, as a result of the 
contravention, the higher the penalty should be;
	(c)	the more times a person has previously been issued an 
administrative penalty, the higher the penalty should be;
	(d)	the greater the degree of wilfulness or neglect in the 
contravention, the higher the penalty should be;
	(e)	any other consideration determined relevant by the Registrar.
Limitation period
71   An administrative penalty may be imposed only within 6 months 
of the date the Registrar first becomes aware of the contravention of 
this Regulation in respect of which the administrative penalty is to be 
imposed.
Part 5 
Licensee and Technician Profiles
Definitions
72   In this Part,
	(a)	"automotive business" means an automotive business as 
defined in section 1 of the Designation of Trades and 
Businesses Regulation (AR 178/99) under the Fair Trading 
Act;
	(b)	"jurisdiction outside Alberta" means any jurisdiction of 
Canada, the United States of America and Mexico.
Establishing and maintaining profiles
73   For the purpose of monitoring the activities and history of 
compliance of licensees and technicians with respect to the inspection 
of vehicles, the Registrar may establish a program under which profiles 
are created and maintained for each licensee and technician relating to 
the licensee's or technician's compliance with
	(a)	the Act, this Regulation and other regulations under the Act, 
and
	(b)	other enactments of Alberta or laws of a jurisdiction outside 
Alberta with respect to
	(i)	inspection of vehicles and the operation of an 
automotive business, or
	(ii)	activities that are, in the opinion of the Registrar, 
substantially equivalent to those set out in subclause (i).
Contents of profiles
74(1)  The Registrar may include the following information in the 
profile of a licensee or a technician:
	(a)	information relating to the applicable licence under this 
Regulation, including the status of the licence, terms and 
conditions attached to the licence, expiry, prohibitions, 
renewals, suspensions and cancellations of the licence;
	(b)	information relating to licences, permits or certificates 
required to be held by the licensee or technician under 
another enactment, including the status of the licence, permit 
or certificate, terms and conditions attached to the licence, 
permit or certificate, expiry, prohibitions, renewals, 
suspensions and cancellations of the licence, permit or 
certificate;
	(c)	information relating to vehicle inspections;
	(d)	copies of any directive issued by an investigator with respect 
to the actions of the licensee or technician and information 
regarding the disposition of the directive;
	(e)	information regarding any administrative penalty imposed by 
the Registrar for a contravention of this Regulation;
	(f)	rejections or revocations of certificates issued by a licensee 
or completed by a technician;
	(g)	information regarding warnings, notices or directives given 
by the Registrar, investigators or other persons authorized by 
the Registrar;
	(h)	information regarding audits performed by an investigator or 
another person authorized by the Registrar;
	(i)	the results of an inspection conducted by a peace officer or 
the Registrar under the Act, or by a governmental authority 
in a jurisdiction outside Alberta;
	(j)	written reports regarding contraventions by the licensee or 
technician of other enactments of Alberta or laws or a 
jurisdiction outside Alberta by the governmental authority 
responsible for the enforcement or administration of the 
enactment or law;
	(k)	any other information that the Registrar considers appropriate 
and relevant.
(2)  For the purposes of this Part, the Registrar may
	(a)	provide information regarding a licensee or technician that is 
in the possession of the Registrar, and
	(b)	request, collect or otherwise obtain information from the 
licensee or technician, as the case may be, or from any other 
person or organization that has such information in the 
person's or organization's possession.
(3)  In addition to subsection (1), the profile of a licensee may contain 
information regarding
	(a)	the dates on which inspections were conducted and the 
technicians who conducted them,
	(b)	the names and licence numbers of technicians employed by 
the licensee to conduct inspections at the facility,
	(c)	information regarding registration of the licensee's Facility 
Operating Manual,
	(d)	a record of vehicle inspection certificates submitted late, and
	(e)	where the licensee is a carrier, information relating to the 
carrier's performance and compliance with the Act and 
regulations.
(4)  In addition to subsection (1), a technician profile may include
	(a)	the results of any background check of the technician,
	(b)	proof of the technician's ability or continuing competency 
under section 47(2) to conduct inspections as authorized by 
the technician licence, and
	(c)	information regarding registration of the Vehicle Inspection 
Manual.
(5)  A profile for a licensee or a technician may be maintained in 
electronic or paper form, or both.
(6)  Subject to the payment of a fee as set by the Registrar, a licensee 
or a technician may obtain a copy of the profile pertaining to that 
licensee or technician, as the case may be, in a form provided by the 
Registrar.
(7)  This Part applies to a licensee or a technician whether or not the 
facility licence or technician licence is subsisting.
(8)  The authority to create and maintain records in licensee and 
technician profiles includes the authority to update, add, correct and 
delete information in the profiles.
Part 6 
General
Terms and conditions
75(1)  The Registrar may at any time make a licence under this 
Regulation subject to the terms and conditions that the Registrar 
considers appropriate.
(2)  The terms and conditions referred to under subsection (1) may be 
imposed on a specific facility or technician or on a class or group of 
facilities or technicians.
Registrar's exemption
76(1)  The Registrar may at any time exempt a facility or a technician 
from any of the requirements under this Regulation, subject to any 
terms and conditions that the Registrar considers appropriate.
(2)  The Registrar may at any time exempt a vehicle from the vehicle 
inspection certificate and decal requirements under this Regulation, 
subject to any terms and conditions that the Registrar considers 
appropriate.
(3)  An exemption under subsection (1) or (2) may apply to a specific 
vehicle, facility or technician or to a class or group of vehicles, 
facilities or technicians.
Continuing competency
77(1)  The Registrar may establish requirements for continuing 
competency to hold a technician licence under this Regulation and may 
at any time require a technician to demonstrate that the technician has 
met those requirements.
(2)  Without limiting the generality of subsection (1), the Registrar 
may include one or more of the following in the criteria for 
determining the continuing competency of a technician:
	(a)	successful completion of an approved training program;
	(b)	achievement of at least a minimum score set by the Registrar 
in an examination approved by the Registrar;
	(c)	inspection of at least a minimum number of vehicles of a 
specified type in a given time period specified by the 
Registrar;
	(d)	have no more than the maximum number or percentage of 
issued certificates revoked in a given time period set by the 
Registrar;
	(e)	any other requirement established by the Registrar.
Crown property
78(1)  A facility licence, technician licence, certificate or decal is the 
property of the Crown in right of Alberta.
(2)  A person in possession of a facility licence, technician licence, 
certificate or decal shall return it to the Registrar or a person 
authorized by the Registrar when the Registrar requests its return.
Accuracy of records
79(1)  A person shall not mutilate, deface, alter, falsify or destroy a 
record required to be maintained under this Regulation.
(2)  A person shall not
	(a)	make or participate in or acquiesce in the making of a false or 
deceptive statement in a record made or required by or under 
this Regulation, or
	(b)	omit or assent to or acquiesce in the omission of an entry in a 
record made or required by or under this Regulation.
Examination of records
80(1)  The Registrar or an investigator may, during the business hours 
of a facility, enter the facility and direct the licensee of the facility to 
produce for examination:
	(a)	all unissued certificates and decals held by the licensee;
	(b)	copies of all certificates issued by the facility within the 
current calendar year and the 4 calendar years immediately 
preceding;
	(c)	copies of all records of inspection issued by the facility 
within the current calendar year and the 4 calendar years 
immediately preceding;
	(d)	a list of the technicians who completed the certificates and 
affixed the decals during the time period set out in clause (b).
(2)  The licensee of a facility shall produce the documents and 
information as directed by the Registrar or the investigator.
Records and information
81(1)  The Registrar may direct a licensee to provide any information 
and records in the possession or control of the licensee that, in the 
opinion of the Registrar, are pertinent to the administration of this 
Regulation.
(2)  A licensee of a facility shall keep copies of all certificates, decals 
and records of inspections issued by each technician at that facility 
within the current calendar year and the 4 calendar years immediately 
preceding.
(3)  The Registrar or an investigator may examine or copy the records 
or documents kept by a licensee of a facility under this Regulation.
Vehicle safety investigator
82(1)  The Registrar may in writing authorize a person who is not a 
vehicle safety investigator to carry out any of the functions of an 
investigator under this Regulation.
(2)  An authorization made under subsection (1) may be:
	(a)	general or applicable to a specific case;
	(b)	subject to any terms and conditions that the Registrar 
considers appropriate.
(3)  An authorization made under subsection (1) terminates on the date 
specified in the authorization, unless terminated earlier by the 
Registrar in writing.
(4)  A person who is authorized under subsection (1) may exercise the 
functions and perform the duties of an investigator, subject to any 
terms and conditions specified in the authorization.
(5)  A person who is required under this Regulation to forward a 
licence, certificate, decal, record of inspection or other document or 
record to the Registrar shall, at the request of an investigator, deliver 
that item to the investigator instead of forwarding it to the Registrar.
Missing certificate
83(1)  If an unissued certificate or decal that should be in the 
possession of the licensee of a facility is missing or destroyed, the 
licensee shall immediately report in writing that fact, the surrounding 
circumstances and the identification number of the certificate or decal 
to the Registrar.
(2)  If a subsisting certificate or decal issued to the owner of a vehicle 
is missing or destroyed, the owner or driver of the vehicle for which 
the certificate or decal was issued shall immediately report in writing 
that fact, the surrounding circumstances and the identification number 
of the certificate or decal to the Registrar.
(3)  A person who finds a certificate or decal reported lost under this 
section shall immediately send the certificate or decal to the Registrar.
(4)  Where a report is made to the Registrar under subsection (1) or (2) 
and the missing certificate or decal once again comes into that person's 
possession, the person shall forward to the Registrar the certificate or 
decal that had been missing.
Missing licence
84(1)  If a facility licence or a technician licence is lost or destroyed, 
the licensee or technician shall immediately report in writing that fact 
and the surrounding circumstances to the Registrar.
(2)  The licensee of a facility may apply to the Registrar, in a form and 
manner approved by the Registrar, for a duplicate of the facility 
licence if the licence is lost or destroyed or becomes unreadable.
(3)  A technician may apply to the Registrar, in a form and manner 
approved by the Registrar, for a duplicate of the technician licence if 
the licence is lost or destroyed or becomes unreadable.
(4)  If a licensee or technician obtains a duplicate licence and later 
finds the original licence, the licensee or technician, as the case may 
be, shall destroy the original licence.
Non-transferability
85(1)  A certificate or decal is not valid if it is transferred from the 
vehicle in respect of which it was issued to another vehicle.
(2)  A facility licence is not valid if it
	(a)	is transferred from the person who is the licensee of the 
facility in respect of which it was issued to another person, or
	(b)	purports to apply to a facility other than the facility in respect 
of which it was issued.
(3)  A technician licence is not valid if it is transferred from the person 
to whom it was issued to another person.
Offences
86   A person who contravenes or fails to comply with any of the 
following provisions is guilty of an offence:
section 7(1)(a) and (b), (2) 
section 9 
section 12(1) 
section 13(a) and (b) 
section 14(a) and (b) 
section 15(1)(a), (b), (c), (d), (e), (f) and (g) 
section 19(1)(a), (b), (c) and (d), (2)(a) and (b) 
section 20(1)(a), (b), (c) and (d) 
section 21(1) and (3) 
section 24 
section 25(3) 
section 26(1) 
section 27(1), (2), (3), (4), (5)(a), (b), (c) and (d), (6), (7)(a) and (b) 
section 28(1)(a), (b), (c), (d) and (e), (2) 
section 29(1)(a), (b) and (c), (2)(a) and (b) 
section 32(3) 
section 33(6) 
section 34(7) 
section 39(1) 
section 44(1), (2) and (3) 
section 45(1) and (2) 
section 46(1)(a), (b), (c) and (d) 
section 52(a), (b), (c) and (d) 
section 55(3) 
section 60 
section 64(1)(a), (b), (c) and (d), (2)(a), (b), (c), (d) and (e) 
section 78(2) 
section 79(1), (2)(a) and (b) 
section 81(2) 
section 82(5) 
section 83(1) and (2) 
section 84(1) and (4)
Part 7 
Transitional Provisions, Consequential 
Amendments, Repeals, Expiry and 
Coming into Force
Transitional provisions
87(1)  In this section, "previous regulation" means
	(a)	Bus Safety Regulation (AR 235/82),
	(b)	Commercial Vehicle Inspection Regulation (AR 414/91),
	(c)	Commercial Bus Inspection, Equipment and Safety 
Regulation (AR 428/91), and
	(d)	Motor Vehicle Inspection Regulation (AR 318/2002).
(2)  A vehicle inspection facility licence, an inspection mechanic's 
licence, a vehicle inspection certificate or a commercial vehicle 
inspection decal issued under a previous regulation that is subsisting 
immediately before the coming into force of this Regulation is a 
facility licence, technician licence, certificate or decal, as the case may 
be, for the same type of vehicle under this Regulation and subject to 
the same terms and conditions, if any, for the remainder of its term.
(3)  A person who is authorized as or who discharges the functions of a 
vehicle safety inspector, vehicle safety auditor or vehicle examiner 
under a previous regulation immediately before the coming into force 
of this Regulation is a vehicle safety investigator under this 
Regulation.
(4)  An authorization granted under section 3.1 of the Commercial 
Vehicle Inspection Regulation (AR 414/91) and that is subsisting 
immediately before the coming into force of this Regulation remains in 
effect for the remainder of its term, subject to any terms and conditions 
attached to it, unless revoked earlier by the Registrar.
(5)  An extension granted under section 4.1 of the Commercial Bus 
Inspection, Equipment and Safety Regulation (AR 428/91) and that is 
subsisting immediately before the coming into force of this Regulation 
remains in effect for the remainder of its term, subject to any terms and 
conditions attached to it, unless revoked earlier by the Registrar.
(6)  A vehicle inspection program manual adopted by the Registrar 
under a previous regulation is a Vehicle Inspection Manual under this 
Regulation, until it is rescinded by the Registrar or replaced by a new 
manual adopted by the Registrar under this Regulation.
(7)  A record or other information established and maintained, in 
whatever form, under a previous regulation for the purpose of 
monitoring the activities of a licensee or a technician with respect to 
compliance with the Act and that previous regulation constitutes the 
profile of a licensee or a technician in accordance with Part 5 of this 
Regulation.
Consequential Amendments
Commercial Vehicle Certificate and 
Insurance Regulation
88(1)  This section amends the Commercial Vehicle 
Certificate and Insurance Regulation (AR 314/2002).
(2)  Section 43(1) is amended by striking out "Commercial Bus 
Inspection, Equipment and Safety Regulation (AR 428/91)" and 
substituting "Vehicle Inspection Regulation".
Operator Licensing and Vehicle 
Control Regulation
89(1)  This section amends the Operator Licensing and 
Vehicle Control Regulation (AR 320/2002).
(2)  Section 1 is amended by adding the following after 
clause (z):
	(aa)	"unsafe vehicle" means an unsafe vehicle as defined in the 
Vehicle Inspection Regulation.
(3)  Section 56(1) is repealed and the following is 
substituted:
Vehicle not registrable
56(1)  If the Registrar has reason to believe that a vehicle is an out 
of province motor vehicle, a salvage motor vehicle or an unsafe 
vehicle under the Vehicle Inspection Regulation, the Registrar shall 
not issue a certificate of registration in respect of the vehicle unless 
the applicant provides to the Registrar a subsisting vehicle 
inspection certificate issued for the vehicle under the Vehicle 
Inspection Regulation as follows:
	(a)	in the case of an out of province motor vehicle, an out 
of province motor vehicle inspection certificate;
	(b)	in the case of a salvage motor vehicle or an unsafe 
vehicle, a salvage motor vehicle inspection certificate.
(4)  Section 75(1) is amended by striking out "or" at the end 
of clause (c), adding "or" at the end of clause (d) and adding 
the following after clause (d):
	(e)	is an unsafe vehicle.
Procedures Regulation
90(1)  This section amends the Procedures Regulation 
(AR 233/89).
(2)  Part 30 and Part 31 in Schedule 2 are repealed.
Repeals, Expiry and Coming into Force
Repeals
91   The following regulations are repealed:
	(a)	Commercial Vehicle Inspection Regulation (AR 414/91);
	(b)	Motor Vehicle Inspection Regulation (AR 318/2002).
Expiry
92   For the purpose of ensuring that this Regulation is reviewed for 
ongoing relevancy and necessity, with the option that it may be 
repassed in its present or an amended form following a review, this 
Regulation expires on April 1, 2012.
Coming into force
93   This Regulation comes into force on January 1, 2007.
Schedule 
 
Premises and Equipment Requirements 
for Vehicle Inspection Facilities
Responsibility of licensee
1   The licensee of a facility shall ensure that the facility is equipped, 
and that the premises and equipment are maintained, in accordance 
with this Schedule.
Requirements regarding premises
2   The premises of a licensed vehicle inspection facility shall
	(a)	have sufficient interior space to accommodate the type of 
vehicles the facility is licensed to inspect,
	(b)	have hard surface flooring that conforms to the standards set 
out in the Facility Operating Manual and that is capable of 
supporting the heaviest type of vehicle that the facility is 
licensed to inspect,
	(c)	have adequate lighting for the purpose of conducting vehicle 
inspections,
	(d)	have adequate and appropriate space to display vehicle 
inspection program signage in a conspicuous manner and as 
required in the Facility Operating Manual,
	(e)	be in a clean and safe condition, and
	(f)	comply with applicable federal and provincial requirements 
relating to workplace safety.
Requirements regarding equipment
3   A facility that is licensed as a vehicle inspection facility shall have 
the following equipment available:
	(a)	standard mechanical service equipment and tools for the 
inspection, repair and maintenance of the types of vehicles 
the facility is licensed to inspect;
	(b)	lift equipment capable of safely raising the heaviest type of 
vehicle the facility is licensed to inspect;
	(c)	safety stands capable of supporting the heaviest type of 
vehicle the facility is licensed to inspect;
	(d)	a brake drum diameter gauge accurate to within 0.25 
millimetres and capable of measuring the largest brake drum 
used on the types of vehicles the facility is licensed to 
inspect;
	(e)	micrometers or rotor gauges that are accurate to within 0.010 
millimetres and that are capable of measuring rotors on the 
types of vehicles the facility is licensed to inspect;
	(f)	a dial indicator that is accurate to 0.010 millimetres;
	(g)	headlight aiming equipment maintained and calibrated to the 
manufacturer's specifications or a headlight aiming screen in 
a level stall large enough to allow a distance of 7.62 metres 
between the vehicle's headlights and the screen;
	(h)	a torque wrench capable of measuring the torque 
requirements of the types of vehicles the facility is licensed 
to inspect;
	(i)	a tire tread gauge capable of measuring in 0.80 millimetre 
increments;
	(j)	a tire pressure gauge capable of measuring tire pressures in 
the ranges required for the types of vehicles the facility is 
licensed to inspect.
Requirements for out of province and salvage motor vehicles
4(1)  In addition to the equipment listed in section 3, a facility in 
which out of province or salvage motor vehicles are inspected shall 
have
	(a)	computerized 4-wheel alignment equipment that is capable of 
printing the results of alignment procedures, and
	(b)	on-board diagnostic equipment and software for testing 
supplemental restraint systems and antilock braking systems 
for the types of vehicles the facility is licensed to inspect.
(2)  Subsection (1)(a) does not apply if the licensee of the facility has 
an arrangement that has been approved by the Registrar with the 
licensee of another facility to perform computerized 4-wheel alignment 
procedures at that facility.
Requirements for salvage motor vehicles
5   In addition to the equipment listed in sections 3 and 4, a facility in 
which salvage motor vehicles are inspected shall have
	(a)	standard autobody equipment and tools for the inspection, 
repair and maintenance of the types of vehicles the facility is 
licensed to inspect,
	(b)	frame straightening equipment with a 4-point anchoring 
system designed to hold a vehicle in a stationary position that 
is suitable for the types of vehicles the facility is licensed to 
inspect,
	(c)	measuring devices that are suitable for symmetrical and 
asymmetrical bodies and frames for the types of vehicles the 
facility is licensed to inspect, and
	(d)	frame specification manuals or software for the type of 
vehicles the facility is licensed to inspect.
Mechanical equipment
6   Without limiting the generality of section 3(a), a facility in which 
commercial vehicles are inspected shall have 
	(a)	wheel and hub removal and installation tools,
	(b)	a wheel dolly,
	(c)	wheel seal installation tools,
	(d)	a magnetic based dial indicator,
	(e)	a feeler gauge,
	(f)	a depth gauge,
	(g)	fifth wheel locking test tools,
	(h)	a flat surface square,
	(i)	a brake cam rotation protractor,
	(j)	a pry bar,
	(k)	air system timing equipment,
	(l)	a vacuum gauge, and
	(m)	an electrical test light.
School buses
7   In addition to the equipment listed in sections 3 and 6, a facility in 
which school buses are inspected shall have
	(a)	a voltmeter,
	(b)	an ammeter, or
	(c)	a battery load tester.
Condition of equipment
8(1)  All gauges and measuring devices required to be used in a 
facility under this Schedule shall be properly calibrated at all times.
(2)  All equipment and tools required to be used in a facility under this 
Schedule shall be kept clean and in good working order.



Alberta Regulation 212/2006
Traffic Safety Act
BUS SAFETY REGULATION
Filed: August 29, 2006
For information only:   Made by the Minister of Infrastructure and Transportation 
(M.O. 32/06) on August 28, 2006 pursuant to sections 81 and 156 of the Traffic 
Safety Act. 
Table of Contents
	1	Definitions
	2	Compliance with safety standards
	3	Definitions applicable to handi-buses
	4	Application to handi-buses
	5	Requirement for maintenance
	6	Limitation
	7	Repeal
	8	Expiry
	9	Coming into force 
 
Schedules


Definitions
1   In this Regulation,
	(a)	"bus" means a Type A, Type B, Type C or Type D school 
bus as described in the CSA Standard;
	(b)	"CSA School Buses Standard" means CSA Standard D250-
98 "School Buses" as amended or replaced from time to time 
and issued by the Canadian Standards Association.
Compliance with safety standards
2   The owner of a bus other than a bus that is used for personal 
transportation shall ensure that it is maintained in accordance with 
Schedule 1.
Definitions applicable to handi-buses
3(1)  In sections 4 to 6 and in Schedules 2 and 3, 
	(a)	"anchor point" means a point or area on a handi-bus to which 
anchorage is attached;
	(b)	"anchorage" means the means of attachment for the purpose 
of transferring forces between a mobility aid and a handi-bus 
through a MASOR system;
	(c)	"automatic occupant protection system" means a protective 
restraining system for an occupant of a vehicle that does not 
require any deliberate action on the part of the occupant to be 
activated when the occupant enters, occupies or leaves the 
vehicle;
	(d)	"belt" means a length of energy-absorbing webbing material 
used as part of an occupant restraint system;
	(e)	"CMVSS" means Canadian Motor Vehicle Safety Standard;
	(f)	"CSA" means Canadian Standards Association;
	(g)	"forward facing" means facing the front of the handi-bus 
with the mobility aid reference plane within 10§ of the 
longitudinal axis of the vehicle;
	(h)	"handi-bus" means a Type A, Type B, Type C or Type D 
school bus as described in the CSA School Buses Standard 
that is used primarily for the purpose of providing 
transportation for compensation for persons with physical 
disabilities, but does not include
	(i)	a livery,
	(ii)	a school bus within the meaning of the School Bus 
Operation Regulation (AR 437/86), or
	(iii)	a transit bus owned and operated by a municipality 
when the transit bus is being operated within the 
boundaries of that municipality;
	(i)	"mobility aid" means a device used to facilitate the transport, 
in a normal seated orientation, of a person with a physical 
disability, and includes
	(i)	a manual or powered wheelchair, and
	(ii)	a scooter;
	(j)	"mobility aid occupant" means an occupant of a handi-bus 
who uses a mobility aid;
	(k)	"mobility aid securement and occupant restraint system" or 
"MASOR system" means a device or system intended
	(i)	to secure a mobility aid in a handi-bus, and
	(ii)	to restrain an occupant seated in a mobility aid during a 
frontal vehicle impact;
	(l)	"occupant restraint" means a device or system intended to 
restrain the occupant seated in a mobility aid during a frontal 
vehicle impact, and includes
	(i)	a lap belt for restraining movement of the pelvis 
(referred to as a Type 1 occupant restraint),
	(ii)	a combination pelvis and upper torso restraint (referred 
to as a Type 2 occupant restraint), and
	(iii)	an upper torso restraint for use only in conjunction with 
a pelvis restraint to form a Type 2 occupant restraint 
(referred to as a Type 2A occupant restraint);
	(m)	"postural support belt" means a length of webbing material 
used to control either the upper or lower torso of a mobility 
aid occupant, but not to restrain the occupant during a frontal 
vehicle impact;
	(n)	"seat belt assembly" means any strap, webbing or similar 
device designated to secure a person in a handi-bus in order 
to mitigate the results of an accident, and includes
	(i)	all necessary buckles and other fasteners and all 
hardware, and
	(ii)	a belt assembly that is part of an automatic occupant 
protection system;
	(o)	"securement point" means a load bearing strong point on a 
mobility aid intended for use with a MASOR system;
	(p)	"webbing" means a narrow fabric woven with continuous 
filling yarns that has finished edges.
(2)  For the purposes of subsection (1)(h), transportation shall be 
considered to be provided for compensation if a charge is imposed 
directly for the provision of the transportation.
Application to handi-buses
4   The requirements of sections 5 and 6 and Schedules 2 and 3 in 
respect of handi-buses are in addition to any other provisions of this 
Regulation that apply to handi-buses as buses.
Requirement for maintenance
5   The owner of a handi-bus shall keep and maintain the handi-bus 
and all its equipment in a condition of conformity with the standards 
and specifications prescribed in Schedules 2 and 3.
Limitation
6   Section 5 does not apply in respect of a handi-bus that was 
purchased or first used as a handi-bus before September 1, 1999.
Repeal
7   The Bus Safety Regulation (AR 235/82) is repealed.
Expiry
8   For the purpose of ensuring that this Regulation is reviewed for 
ongoing relevancy and necessity, with the option that it may be 
repassed in its present or an amended form following a review, this 
Regulation expires on December 31, 2008.
Coming into force
9   This Regulation comes into force on January 1, 2007.
Schedule 1  
 
Maintenance Standards for Buses
1(1)  The body, sheet metal equipment, main and emergency doors and 
interior of a bus shall be maintained in accordance with subsection (2).
(2)  Bus interior, body, door and seat standards under this Schedule 
are:
	(a)	each bumper shall be securely mounted and not have broken, 
bent or sharp edges;
	(b)	each fender shall be in place and mouldings or other sheet 
metal parts shall not have broken, bent or sharp protruding 
edges;
	(c)	main and emergency doors shall operate easily and shall 
close securely;
	(d)	the emergency door shall be unobstructed, and shall be easily 
opened from inside and outside the vehicle;
	(e)	door controls shall operate smoothly and the seals shall be in 
good condition;
	(f)	the hood latch shall hold the hood securely and, if there is a 
front opening hood, the safety catch shall be operative;
	(g)	each seat shall be securely mounted and shall retain its 
position in accordance with CSA School Buses Standard;
	(h)	floor coverings shall be in good condition, with no loose 
edges;
	(i)	where applicable, baggage racks shall be securely mounted;
	(j)	the bus inside sun visor on the driver's side, and where 
applicable the inside visor on the passenger's side, shall be 
firmly mounted and not shake out of position;
	(k)	a bus registered as a school bus under the Traffic Safety Act 
shall be yellow chrome and black in accordance with CSA 
School Buses Standard;
	(l)	all bus signs shall be clean and legible;
	(m)	the seating capacity of the bus shall be in accordance with the 
manufacturer's recommendation.
(3)  Subsection (2)(k) does not apply to a handi-bus.
2(1)  The frame of a bus shall be maintained in accordance with 
subsection (2).
(2)  Frame standards under this Schedule are:
	(a)	chassis frame rails or members shall not be cracked nor have 
loose or missing connecting fasteners or rivets;
	(b)	body mounts shall be in place and secure;
	(c)	the floor pan shall not be perforated by rust or other damage.
3(1)  The windshield and all windows of a bus shall be maintained in 
accordance with subsection (2).
(2)  Windshield, window and mirror standards under this Schedule are:
	(a)	opaque material or any other material shall not be fitted in 
place of glazing in the windshield or in the front 2 side 
windows to the left and right of the driver's seat;
	(b)	glazing material shall not be cracked, crazed, discoloured, 
fogged, not have exposed sharp edges nor have any parts 
missing;
	(c)	the windshield shall not have any star or crack running from 
edge to edge in the area swept by the wiper blades or in an 
area which partly impairs the operator's field of vision;
	(d)	the emergency window release shall operate smoothly and 
the seals shall be in place and in good condition;
	(e)	the inside rear view mirror, left outside mirror and right 
outside mirror shall be securely mounted and give the 
operator an unobstructed view;
	(f)	no mirror shall be cracked or broken or have a reduction in 
its reflective surface.
(3)  Subsection (2)(a) does not apply to a handi-bus.
4(1)  The complete accelerator linkage system and carburetor or 
injection pump controls and links shall be maintained in accordance 
with subsection (2).
(2)  Fuel system and acceleration linkage standards under this 
Schedule are:
	(a)	the mounting and the attachments of the fuel tank and fuel 
lines shall be secure;
	(b)	the filler neck and cap shall be secure;
	(c)	the fuel system shall not leak;
	(d)	all fuel line hose clamps shall be in position and secure;
	(e)	the return spring shall be in place and not damaged;
	(f)	no component shall be missing, damaged, worn or out of 
adjustment so as to prevent the engine speed returning to idle 
while the transmission is in neutral and the accelerator pedal 
is released.
5(1)  The exhaust system including the muffler, tail pipes, exhaust 
pipes, heat shields and support hardware shall be maintained in 
accordance with subsection (2).
(2)  The exhaust system standards under this Schedule are:
	(a)	no component of the exhaust system shall be missing, 
perforated, patched or insecurely mounted;
	(b)	the bus shall have a muffler;
	(c)	no joint or seam shall leak;
	(d)	no component shall cause charring or other heat damage to 
wiring, brake line, fuel line or combustible material of the 
bus;
	(e)	all exhaust connections except flange type shall have exhaust 
clamps;
	(f)	the tail pipe shall extend to but not protrude beyond the rear 
bumper.
(3)  Subsection (2)(f) does not apply to a handi-bus.
6(1)  The brake friction components of a bus shall be maintained in 
accordance with subsection (2).
(2)  The brake friction component standards under this Schedule are:
	(a)	a drum or disc shall not have any external crack on the 
friction surface, other than a normal heat check crack, which 
may reach the edge of the drum or periphery of the disc;
	(b)	a drum or disc shall not have any mechanical damage to the 
friction surface other than normal wear;
	(c)	bonded lining shall not be thinner than 2 millimetres when 
measured at the thinnest point;
	(d)	a riveted lining surface shall not be closer than 2 millimetres 
to any rivet head or bolt;
	(e)	wire backing shall not be visible in a friction surface;
	(f)	a disc pad shall not be less than 2 millimetres in thickness 
when measured at its thinnest point to a rivet head or to a 
backing plate of a bonded lining and a wear indicator shall 
not be in contact with a disc;
	(g)	no rivet shall be loose or missing;
	(h)	the brake lining shall not be broken, cracked or loose on the 
shoe or pad not so worn as to indicate a defective drum, disc 
or warped shoe;
	(i)	oil or grease shall not be present in a lining or pad friction 
surface;
	(j)	a ventilated disc shall not have broken or visible cracked 
cooling fins;
	(k)	a drum disc shall not be worn out of round or machined 
beyond the limits as stamped on the drum or disc by the 
manufacturer;
	(l)	each automatic adjuster shall be functional and perform in 
accordance with its design specifications.
7(1)  The hydraulic components of the brake system on a bus shall be 
maintained in accordance with subsection (2).
(2)  Hydraulic brake component standards under this Schedule are:
	(a)	a master cylinder or wheel cylinder shall not leak and the 
brake cylinder piston shall move when moderate pressure is 
applied to the brake pedal;
	(b)	each wheel cylinder piston shall be connected to the brake 
shoes in accordance with the manufacturer's design;
	(c)	the hydraulic hose and tube shall not
	(i)	be abraded, restricted, crimped, cracked or broken,
	(ii)	leak,
	(iii)	rub against the bus structure nor have contact with 
moving components during the operation of the vehicle, 
or
	(iv)	have missing clamps or supports;
	(d)	no connection shall leak;
	(e)	the fluid level in a reservoir shall be up to the fill level 
specified by the manufacturer;
	(f)	the master cylinder push rod shall be adjusted in accordance 
with the manufacturer's specifications.
8(1)  All mechanical components of the brake system of a bus shall be 
maintained in accordance with subsection (2).
(2)  Mechanical brake component standards under this Schedule are 
that mechanical parts shall not be misaligned, badly worn, bent, broken 
or missing. 
9(1)  The service brake pedal shall be maintained in accordance with 
subsection (2).
(2)  The service brake pedal standards under this Schedule are:
	(a)	the service brake pedal pad shall be present, secure and not 
badly worn;
	(b)	when firm foot pressure is maintained on the service brake 
pedal for one minute it shall hold its position;
	(c)	no pedal or other component shall bind or cause high friction; 
	(d)	the pedal lever assembly shall be aligned and positioned in 
accordance with the manufacturer's specifications;
	(e)	the service brake pedal shall function in accordance with 
good shop practice.
10(1)  The brake failure warning lights on all braking systems shall be 
maintained in accordance with subsection (2).
(2)  The warning light system standards under this Schedule are:
	(a)	on a motor vehicle with dual braking, the brake failure 
warning light shall function in accordance with the 
manufacturer's specifications;
	(b)	the brake failure warning light shall not turn on when 
maximum manual force is applied while the engine is 
running;
	(c)	the brake light or warning device shall come on when the air 
pressure is reduced to a reading between 345 kilopascals 
gauge and 485 kilopascals gauge;
	(d)	the hydro-boost warning light shall function in accordance 
with the manufacturer's specifications;
	(e)	the low vacuum emergency pump shall operate within the 
manufacturer's design specifications.
11(1)  The emergency or parking brake shall be maintained in 
accordance with subsection (2).
(2)  Emergency or parking brake standards under this Schedule are:
	(a)	the parking brake while set but not held by hand in the fully 
applied position shall hold the bus from being moved by the 
bus engine and power train when the engine is at a light 
throttle setting;
	(b)	the mechanism in the "off" position shall fully release the 
brakes;
	(c)	a micro-lock device shall not be used to replace a parking or 
emergency brake;
	(d)	pull cables shall not be worn, stretched or frayed and shall 
operate freely;
	(e)	parking brake drum disc or facing shall not be broken nor 
worn thinner than 2 millimetres in thickness when measured 
at its thinnest point to the rivet head or shoe.
12(1)  The bus vacuum system components which include hoses, 
tubes, supports, hose clamps and brake booster breather filters shall be 
maintained in accordance with subsection (2).
(2)  Bus vacuum system component standards under this Schedule are:
	(a)	hoses, tubes or connections shall not leak nor be restricted, 
abraded, crimped, cracked, broken nor rub against any 
structure nor have damaged or missing clamps or supports;
	(b)	the brake booster or hydrovac breather filter shall be clean;
	(c)	if a bus is equipped with a vacuum pump, the drive belt shall 
be adjusted to the tension specified by the manufacturer and 
not be worn or frayed;
	(d)	the vacuum pump air cleaner shall be clean;
	(e)	the vacuum tank reserve system shall be capable of holding 
38 centimetres of vacuum for 15 minutes;
	(f)	the vacuum reserve shall be sufficient to permit 2 full 
applications of the service brake after the engine is stopped;
	(g)	the brake pedal when depressed under a foot pressure of 187 
newtons to 267 newtons shall have 30% or more of the total 
available pedal travel remain;
	(h)	the brake pedal shall move towards the applied position when 
the engine is started while foot force is maintained on the 
brake pedal in the vacuum system test;
	(i)	a hard pedal condition shall not be present;
	(j)	the brake vacuum booster piston seal, valves or diaphragms 
shall not leak.
13(1)  If a bus is equipped with air brakes, the air system must be 
maintained in accordance with subsection (2).
(2)  Air system standards under this Schedule are:
	(a)	hoses, tubes or connections shall not leak nor be restricted, 
abraded, crimped, cracked, broken nor rub against any bus 
structure nor have damaged or missing clamps or supports;
	(b)	the air safety valve shall operate in accordance with the 
manufacturer's specifications;
	(c)	the compressor drive belt where applicable shall be adjusted 
to the tension specified by the manufacturer and shall not be 
cracked or frayed;
	(d)	the air compressor air cleaner shall be clean;
	(e)	the time required to build up air pressure from 482 
kilopascals gauge to 758 kilopascals gauge shall not exceed 3 
minutes when the engine is running at a steady fast idle;
	(f)	the low pressure warning light or buzzer shall operate when 
the air pressure is reduced to a reading between 345 
kilopascals gauge and 414 kilopascals gauge;
	(g)	the governor cut in pressure shall not be lower than 552 
kilopascals gauge and the cut out pressure shall not be higher 
than 862 kilopascals gauge unless other pressure is 
recommended by the manufacturer;
	(h)	the brake pressure drop shall not exceed
	(i)	14 kilopascals gauge in one minute for a single axle bus 
while engine is stopped and service brake is released, or
	(ii)	20 kilopascals gauge in one minute for each single rear 
axle bus while the engine is stopped and the service 
brake is fully applied;
	(i)	the compressed air reserve shall be sufficient to permit
	(i)	2 full service brake applications from governor cut in 
pressure, or
	(ii)	one full service brake application after the engine is 
stopped from the fully charged system without lowering 
reservoir pressure more than 20%.
14(1)  The service brake system must be maintained in accordance 
with subsection (2).
(2)  The service brake system standards under this Schedule are:
	(a)	at a speed of between 8 and 30 kilometres per hour when 
maximum service brake pressure is applied, the wheels shall 
lock;
	(b)	no component of the service brake system shall fail;
	(c)	the bus shall not pull to the right or left when the brake is 
applied;
	(d)	the brakes shall release immediately when pressure is 
released from the pedal;
	(e)	braking efficiency shall be within the recommendation of the 
dynamometer or meter manufacturer.
15(1)  Lamps and reflectors must be maintained in accordance with 
subsection (2).
(2)  Lamps and reflector standards under this Schedule are:
	(a)	every filament in every bulb or unit shall light when switched 
to the "on" position;
	(b)	a circuit shall not interfere with another circuit;
	(c)	all lenses and reflectors shall be in place, unbroken and 
correctly mounted;
	(d)	every lamp shall be securely mounted;
	(e)	a lamp shall not be coated with a coloured lacquer;
	(f)	a lamp shall not be modified by the attachment of any device 
to the lamp or to the bus that reduces the effective area of the 
lens or the brightness of the light;
	(g)	the turn signal lamp switch and the flasher shall operate in 
accordance with the manufacturer's specifications and the 
indicator lamp shall flash;
	(h)	the high and low beam switching shall operate in accordance 
with the manufacturer's specifications;
	(i)	the upper beam indicator lamp shall light and shall indicate in 
accordance with the manufacturer's specifications;
	(j)	where applicable the alternate flashing lamps shall operate 
correctly from both front and rear lights on the 4 lamp or the 
8 lamp systems, as the case may be;
	(k)	where applicable stop arm lamps shall flash when activated;
	(l)	the hazard warning lamps unit shall operate in accordance 
with the manufacturer's specifications and the indicator lamp 
shall flash;
	(m)	the engine, headlight, stop and taillight and hazard warning 
lamp wiring harness shall not be damaged by abrasion or 
deterioration;
	(n)	the battery cables shall be in good condition, free of 
corrosion and firmly attached to the battery, starter and 
engine;
	(o)	the battery shall be free of corrosion and in good condition 
and securely attached to the bus;
	(p)	the alternator belts shall be adjusted in accordance with the 
manufacturer's recommendations and shall not be cracked or 
frayed;
	(q)	where a mechanical aimer is used the head lamp aim shall be 
in accordance with the manufacturer's specifications;
	(r)	the centre of a head lamp on the high beam high intensity 
zone shall not be above nor more than 10 centimetres below 
the horizontal centre line of the lamp and not more than 10 
centimetres to the left or right of the vertical centre line of the 
lamp when measured on an aiming screen in accordance with 
the Society of Automotive Engineers J602 Standards or the 
manufacturer's specifications;
	(s)	the top edge of a head lamp on the low beam high intensity 
zone shall not be more than 5 centimetres above or below the 
horizontal centre line of the lamp and the left edge of the low 
beam high intensity zone shall not be to the left or more than 
15 centimetres to the right of the vertical centre line of the 
lamp when measured on an aiming screen in accordance with 
the Society of Automotive Engineers J602 Standards or the 
manufacturer's specifications.
(3)  Subsection (2)(j) and (k) do not apply to a handi-bus.
16(1)  The horns must be maintained in accordance with subsection 
(2).
(2)  Horn standards under this Schedule are:
	(a)	the horn shall be secure on its mounting;
	(b)	the horn operating mechanism shall function in accordance 
with the manufacturer's specifications.
17(1)  If a bus has an automatic transmission, the neutral safety 
starting switch must be maintained in accordance with subsection (2).
(2)  Neutral safety starting switch standards under this Schedule are 
that the starter shall operate only when the gear selector is in the "P" or 
"N" position.
18(1)  The windshield wipers and washers must be maintained in 
accordance with subsection (2).
(2)  Wipers and washer standards under this Schedule are:
	(a)	each part of the windshield wiper system shall be in place 
and not worn or in such condition that its effectiveness is 
impaired;
	(b)	each wiper blade shall move over its full designed range of 
travel;
	(c)	the windshield washer system shall function in accordance 
with the manufacturer's specifications.
19(1)  All instruments, gauges and instrument lights must be 
maintained in accordance with subsection (2).
(2)  Instrument standards under this Schedule are:
	(a)	all instruments shall be functional and clearly visible to the 
operator;
	(b)	a lens shall not be scratched or cracked or impair the 
legibility for the operator;
	(c)	all gauges shall be functional and clearly visible to the 
operator;
	(d)	all instrument lights shall be functional.
20(1)  All interior heaters and heater motors and defrosters must be 
maintained in accordance with subsection (2).
(2)  Interior heaters and heater motors and defrosters standards under 
this Schedule are:
	(a)	interior heaters shall function in accordance with the 
manufacturer's specifications;
	(b)	heater motors and fans shall function in accordance with the 
manufacturer's specifications;
	(c)	the windshield defroster system shall deliver air to the 
windshield and windows to the left and right of the driver;
	(d)	roof ventilation shall function as designed by the 
manufacturer;
	(e)	all heater hoses and radiator hoses shall be in good condition.
21(1)  The steering mechanisms must be maintained in accordance 
with subsection (2).
(2)  Steering mast jacket, shaft, coupling, spline and assist mechanism 
standards under this Schedule are:
	(a)	the steering column and steering box shall be securely 
mounted to the body and frame;
	(b)	the steering mast jacket bearings and bearing adjustment 
shall meet manufacturer's specifications;
	(c)	the steering shaft coupling and spline shall be secure with no 
visible separation of flex couplings or visible sign of wear at 
the splines or U joints;
	(d)	the steering column and shaft energy absorbing section shall 
not be damaged and sheer fasteners shall be in position in 
accordance with the manufacturer's specifications;
	(e)	free movement of the steering wheel shall not exceed 7 
centimetres at the steering wheel rim when the front wheels 
are stationary and in the straight ahead position;
	(f)	there shall be no end play in the worm or sector of the 
steering box;
	(g)	sector bushing wear shall not exceed 0.381 millimetres;
	(h)	the front wheels shall turn from full right to full left and back 
again without interference, jamming or roughness in the 
mechanism;
	(i)	tie rod ends and drag linkage ends shall not have vertical or 
lateral play beyond good acceptable shop practice;
	(j)	the king pins at the front wheels shall not have a rocking play 
about a horizontal axis in excess of
	(i)	6 millimetres for a wheel diameter of 42 centimetres or 
less,
	(ii)	9 millimetres for a wheel diameter greater than 42 
centimetres but less than 46 centimetres, or
	(iii)	13 millimetres for a wheel diameter 46 centimetres or 
greater when measured at the tire face;
	(k)	the axle king pin eyes shall not be out of round;
	(l)	the steering linkage shall not be damaged or repaired;
	(m)	the steering linkage shall not be modified so as to adversely 
affect the steering so that the vehicle's steering is no longer 
in accordance with the manufacturer's alignment 
specifications;
	(n)	the power steering drive belt shall not be cut, frayed, cracked 
and shall have the tension set in accordance with the 
manufacturer's specifications;
	(o)	a hose shall not have cracks, peeling, exterior damage or 
expansion at crimping points;
	(p)	the power steering ram shall not be damaged;
	(q)	the ram ball joints shall be adjusted and aligned in 
accordance with the manufacturer's specifications;
	(r)	the power steering ram seal shall not leak.
22(1)  The front and rear suspension must be maintained in accordance 
with subsection (2).
(2)  Front suspension and rear suspension standards under this 
Schedule are:
	(a)	a non-load carrying ball joint shall not show visible 
movement;
	(b)	a load carrying ball joint shall not have wear in excess of the 
manufacturer's specifications;
	(c)	the rear axle shall track in accordance with the 
manufacturer's specifications;
	(d)	springs, shackles, U bolts, centre bolts, shock absorbers, 
radius rods or stabilizer links shall not be loose, bent, broken, 
disconnected or missing;
	(e)	shackle pins and bushing shall not have a combined wear of 
more than 4.75 millimetres;
	(f)	a shock absorber shall not leak nor shall it be loose;
	(g)	nuts, bolts and cotter pins shall not be loose, worn or missing.
23(1)  The drive shaft and the universal joints must be maintained in 
accordance with subsection (2).
(2)  The drive shaft and universal joint standards under this Schedule 
are:
	(a)	the drive shaft and the universal joints shall not be damaged 
nor have any loose, missing or damaged bolts or retainers;
	(b)	the drive shaft slip yokes and stub shaft splines shall not be 
worn more than 20% of the original spline width;
	(c)	the driver shaft guards shall be undamaged and securely 
fastened to the chassis.
24(1)  All wheel stubs, rims and wheel bearings installed on axles 
must be maintained in accordance with subsection (2).
(2)  Wheel standards under this Schedule are:
	(a)	a wheel shall not be bent, cracked or damaged so that it does 
not operate in accordance with good shop practice;
	(b)	bolts, lugs, spacers, lock rings and nuts shall not be defective 
nor missing;
	(c)	rims shall not be bent, cracked or damaged so that they do 
not operate in accordance with good shop practice;
	(d)	wheel bearings, cones and cups shall not be pitted or worn, 
beyond the manufacturer's specifications;
	(e)	wheel bearings shall be adjusted in accordance with the 
manufacturer's specifications.
25(1)  All tires installed on axles must be maintained in accordance 
with subsection (2).
(2)  Tire standards under this Schedule are:
	(a)	a tire shall not be worn so that
	(i)	the tread wear indicators contact the road, or
	(ii)	less than 2 millimetres of the tread remain on 2 adjacent 
treads;
	(b)	on vehicles of 4500 kilograms gross vehicle weight or more, 
the front tire tread depth shall not be less than 2 millimetres;
	(c)	a snow lug grip tire shall not be smooth for more than 30% of 
its centre;
	(d)	a tire shall not have exposed cord at worn spots;
	(e)	a tire shall not have cuts or snags deep enough to expose the 
cord, or effect the safety of the tire;
	(f)	a tire shall not have any abnormal visible lump, bulge or knot 
related to tread or sidewall separation, failure or partial 
failure of the tire structure, including the bead areas;
	(g)	a tire shall not have been regrooved or recut below the 
original new tire groove depth except a tire designed for 
recutting and marked as being so designed;
	(h)	a tire shall not be a smaller size than is marked on the vehicle 
placard or so oversized that it contacts the bus body structure;
	(i)	a studded tire shall not have less than one half the number of 
studs that are on the corresponding tire on the same axle;
	(j)	a bus shall not be fitted with both radial ply and bias ply tires 
unless it is in accordance with the tire manufacturer's 
specifications;
	(k)	dual tires shall not be in contact with each other nor differ 
from each other by more than 13 millimetres in diameter;
	(l)	a tire shall have the correct air pressure;
	(m)	the load capacity of the tires shall be equal to or greater than 
the gross vehicle weight rating limit of the bus;
	(n)	every tire valve and valve stem shall function in accordance 
with the manufacturer's specifications and shall not be worn 
or damaged;
	(o)	a recap tire shall not be used on front wheels.
26(1)  All buses must be maintained as regards cleanliness in 
accordance with subsection (2).
(2)  Cleanliness standards under this Schedule are:
	(a)	the bus shall be clean inside and outside;
	(b)	all loose items in bus shall be tied down or stored in attached 
containers;
	(c)	windows shall be clean inside and outside;
	(d)	the bus engine compartment shall be free of excess oil and 
grease;
	(e)	the inspection certificate shall be visibly located at the header 
panel.
27(1)  A fire extinguisher carried on the bus must be maintained in 
accordance with subsection (2).
(2)  Fire extinguisher standards under this Schedule are:
	(a)	the fire extinguisher shall meet the requirements of the CSA 
School Buses Standard;
	(b)	the fire extinguisher shall be securely mounted in a suitable 
bracket in the forward end of the bus, easily accessible to the 
driver or near the entrance door;
	(c)	if the fire extinguisher is not in view, its location shall be 
plainly marked and, if it is in a locked compartment, the key 
shall be readily available to the driver and the compartment 
shall buzz if it is locked when the bus is running;
	(d)	the fire extinguisher shall have a gauge to read the state of 
charge and it shall read in the designated zone for full charge.
(3)  The inspection mechanic shall remove the fire extinguisher from 
its bracket, and tip upside down and shake it at the time of the bus 
inspection. 
28(1)  A first aid kit carried on the bus must be maintained in 
accordance with subsection (2).
(2)  First aid kit standards under this Schedule are that the first aid kit 
meets the requirements of CSA School Buses Standard and that it
	(a)	contains
	(i)	4 packets containing 4 hand cleansers, and 12 gauze 
cleansing pads,
	(ii)	150 adhesive dressings 25 millimetres by 75 
millimetres, individually wrapped,
	(iii)	8 compress dressings, 50 millimetres,
	(iv)	6 compress dressings, 100 millimetres,
	(v)	2 eye dressing kits (one eye shield and 2 gauze pads),
	(vi)	3 gauze dressings, 4 ply, minimum 914 millimetres by 
914 millimetres square,
	(vii)	2 gauze bandages, 50 millimetres by 548 millimetres 
(packets),
	(viii)	one adhesive tape, 25 millimetres by 457 millimetres 
(packets),
	(ix)	6 triangular bandages,
	(x)	one metal splint 70 millimetres by 610 millimetres 
rolled,
	(xi)	scissors,
	(xii)	non-rusting tweezers, and
	(xiii)	12 safety pins, 50 millimetres,
		and
	(b)	is mounted in a location readily accessible to the driver but, if 
it is not in view, its location shall be plainly marked and if it 
is in a locked compartment, a key shall be readily available to 
the driver and the compartment shall buzz if it is locked 
when the bus is running.
29(1)  Flares, flags and triangles carried on the bus must be 
maintained in accordance with subsection (2).
(2)  The standards for flares, flags and triangles under this Schedule are 
that they meet the requirements of CSA School Buses Standard and 
that they are securely mounted or stored on the bus.
30(1)  The spare tire must be maintained in accordance with 
subsection (2).
(2)  Spare tire standards under this Schedule are:
	(a)	the spare tire shall be the same size as the tires in use on the 
bus;
	(b)	the spare tire and wheel condition shall be as outlined in 
sections 24(2) and 25(2) of this Schedule;
	(c)	the spare tire does not have to be carried with the bus but 
must be readily available.
Schedule 2 
 
MASOR Requirements for Handi-buses
1   A handi-bus must be equipped with a webbed belt MASOR system 
for each mobility aid occupant.
2(1)  The securement system for a MASOR system
	(a)	must consist of 2 belts on the front and 2 belts on the back for 
attachment to the mobility aid securement points, and
	(b)	must incorporate a means of adjustment to remove slack 
from each mobility aid securement point.
(2)  Securement for a mobility aid must be independent of the occupant 
restraint.
(3)  Components of a MASOR system must be constructed
	(a)	to minimize the possibility of inadvertent release, and
	(b)	so that any parts, such as pins or fasteners, that are required 
for proper operation are secured.
(4)  Threaded fasteners of an occupant restraint must be provided with 
a means of preventing them from vibrating loose.
(5)  Mechanisms for the release of a mobility aid occupant from an  
occupant restraint must be designed and used so that they do not 
require engagement or disengagement of threaded fasteners.
(6)  A MASOR system anchor point must be constructed to permit 
installation at no more than 16 millimetres above the floor of the 
handi-bus.
(7)  Devices provided to adjust a MASOR system to fit a mobility aid 
or an occupant must be capable of being operated without the use of 
tools.
(8)  The hardware components of a MASOR system that attach to the 
mobility aid must be designed and used so that they will not disengage 
from the securement point if any portion of the system goes slack.
(9)  The hardware components of a MASOR system must be installed 
in a manner that does not involve
	(a)	removal of material from the mobility aid frame by means 
such as cutting or drilling,
	(b)	deformation of the mobility aid, or
	(c)	the use of an adhesive process.
(10)  Hardware components of a MASOR system that, under normal 
use, make contact with a mobility aid occupant or are handled by an 
attendant must be constructed without burrs or sharp edges.
(11)  The surface of each securement end fitting must be smooth, and 
corners and edges must be free of burrs and sharp edges.
(12)  The webbing that forms part of an adjustment mechanism must 
have a grip that is at least 25 millimetres long when the adjustment 
mechanism is fully opened.
(13)  No part of a MASOR system may be attached to any part of an 
emergency exit.
3   Batteries used to power a mobility aid must be securely attached to 
the mobility aid.
4(1)  The floor space for each mobility aid must be adequate for the 
MASOR system being used.
(2)  A handi-bus must be equipped so that, except for MASOR system 
components, there is no part of the fixed vehicle structure within the 
clear zone shown in
	(a)	Figure 1 of this Schedule, where a Type 2 occupant restraint 
is used, or
	(b)	Figure 2 of this Schedule, where a Type 1 occupant restraint 
is used.
(3)  Each anchor point for the MASOR system must be designed to be 
capable of withstanding a forward and rearward static loading of 
1600 kilograms.
(4)  A Type 2 occupant restraint must meet the requirements of CSA 
Standard Z605 Mobility Aid Securement and Occupant Restraint 
(MASOR) Systems for Motor Vehicles.
(5)  A Type 2 occupant restraint must be provided at each outboard 
mobility aid position.
(6)  A Type 1 or Type 2 occupant restraint must be provided at each 
inboard mobility aid position.
(7)  Where a Type 2A occupant restraint is used on a mobility aid, the 
MASOR system must
	(a)	pass over either the left or right shoulder of the mobility aid 
occupant, or
	(b)	be marked to indicate the intended orientation with respect to 
the right or left shoulder of the mobility aid occupant if the 
shoulder restraint is designed for only one shoulder.
(8)  All seat belt assembly components must meet the requirements of 
CMVSS 209 Seat Belt Assemblies.
(9)  Anchor points for the MASOR system must meet the strength 
requirements of CMVSS 210 Seat Belt Assembly Anchorages, and the 
upper torso anchor point must be located within the zone shown in 
Figure 3 of this Schedule.
(10)  If the mobility aid securement system and the occupant restraint 
system share a common anchor point, the systems must meet the 
strength requirements of CMVSS 210 Seat Belt Assembly 
Anchorages.
5(1)  The lift in a handi-bus must be secured to the bus in accordance 
with the lift manufacturer's instructions.
(2)  A lift must be capable of functioning in an ambient temperature of 
between -40§C and +40§C.
(3)  A lift must be designed to have a minimum lifting capacity of 
2765 kilograms.
(4)  A powered closing lift platform must be designed so that it will not 
fold when there is a weight of 35 kilograms or more on the centre of 
the platform.
6(1)  A service ramp must be designed for a load of at least 
340 kilograms distributed evenly over a length of 1100 millimetres and 
the full width of the ramp half-way up the ramp.
(2)  The ramp must be capable of functioning in an ambient 
temperature of between -40§C and +40§C.
7   The wheel housing of a handi-bus must
	(a)	be constructed to allow for tire removal and servicing,
	(b)	be constructed of sheet metal with a minimum thickness of 
1.5 millimetres, or of other material of equivalent strength, 
and
	(c)	be attached to floor sheets in a manner that provides a seal 
against water, dust and fumes.
8   The padding on stanchions, guard rails, exposed stationary parts of 
lifts and ramps and grabbers and handles (other than those at an 
entrance to the handi-bus) must consist of the following or other 
material that offers equivalent protection:
	(a)	a closed-cell urethane foam, rubber or vinyl type material 
that is at least 5 millimetres thick;
	(b)	extruded polyvinyl chloride tubing having a minimum 
nominal thickness of 13 millimetres.
9   The heating system of a handi-bus must be capable of maintaining 
the air temperature in the bus at at least 16§C, measured at a point 
between 400 millimetres and 450 millimetres above floor level at the 
centre of the bus with all doors and windows closed when
	(a)	the engine of the bus is idling,
	(b)	the ambient air velocity is 5 km/h, and
	(c)	the outside temperature is -18§C.
10   A handi-bus must meet the requirements of CMVSS 220 Rollover 
Protection.
11   The ceiling and walls of a handi-bus must be insulated to reduce 
sound and vibration and to reduce heat transfer.
12   If an emergency exit is provided in the roof of a handi-bus, it must 
comply with CMVSS 217.
Figure 1 
 
Clear Zone Around a Mobility Aid Position 
when an Upper Torso Restraint is Used

 
	 		        Side View	Front View         
Figure 2 
 
Clear Zone Around a Mobility Aid Position 
when an Upper Torso Restraint is Not Used

 
	 		        Side View	Front View         
Figure 3 
 
Location of Anchor Points for an  
Upper Torso Restraint Belt

 
		       Side View	Front View       
R = Distance between the seating reference plane and upper anchor 
point.
Schedule 3 
 
Chassis and Structural  
Requirements for Handi-buses
1   All chassis apparatus terminals on a handi-bus must be readily 
accessible without dismantling or disassembling chassis components, 
so that the combined body and chassis electrical system can be 
serviced.
2   The exhaust system of a handi-bus must be located so that exhaust 
will be directed away from the body of the bus and from loading areas.
3(1)  On a frame-type handi-bus, the chassis frame must extend to the 
rear edge of the rear body cross member and the body must be attached 
to the chassis frame in such a manner as to prevent shifting or 
separation of the body from the chassis under severe operating 
conditions.
(2)  The front bumper of a handi-bus must extend beyond the 
forward-most part of the body and to the outer edge of the front body 
panels to ensure fender and body protection.
(3)  The rear bumper of a handi-bus must be attached directly to the 
chassis frame in a manner that permits it to be removed.
(4)  The body of a handi-bus must be equipped with windows on both 
sides of the passenger compartment.
4   A handi-bus must be equipped with service entrances as follows:
	(a)	there must be an ambulatory entrance door on the right side 
of the bus, and where only one mobility aid entrance is 
provided, it must not be on the left side of the bus;
	(b)	the opening and closing device for the ambulatory entrance 
door must be located so that it is under the control of the 
driver;
	(c)	if a hand lever is used to open and close the ambulatory 
entrance door, it must be designed so that no parts may come 
together in a way that might crush or shear fingers;
	(d)	power operated ambulatory entrance doors must be designed 
so they can be operated manually;
	(e)	on a split-type door, if one section opens inward and the 
other opens outward, the door must be designed so that the 
front section opens outward;
	(f)	vertical closing edges of a split-type or jack-knife type door 
must be equipped with flexible material to minimize the 
possibility of injury to fingers;
	(g)	a service door must be provided with a means of securing it 
against unintended closing during loading or unloading of 
passengers, and an ambulatory entrance door must be 
provided with a safety latch on the door to prevent 
unintended closing if the door grab handles are used;
	(h)	where a service door opening is less than 1980 millimetres in 
height, it must be padded at the top interior edge;
	(i)	a service door must be provided with a drip moulding above 
the door opening to direct water to either side of the opening;
	(j)	a mobility aid entrance must have the following minimum 
dimensions, with lift installed:
	(i)	812 millimetres in width;
	(ii)	1400 millimetres in height.
5   Steps on a handi-bus must meet the following requirements:
	(a)	the step covering material must be skid-resistant;
	(b)	there must be a yellow or white stripe, which is in contrast to 
the background, not less than 38 millimetres and not more 
than 75 millimetres wide, on the leading edge of the 
horizontal surface of each step and on the floor surface at the 
step entrance;
	(c)	the dimensions of steps at the ambulatory entrance door must 
be as follows:
	(i)	the height of the first step must not be higher than 
380 millimetres from ground level;
	(ii)	the height of steps in the bus must not exceed 
230 millimetres;
	(iii)	the variation in the height of steps in the bus must not 
exceed 25 millimetres;
	(iv)	the depth of each step (front to back) must be at least 
215 millimetres;
	(v)	the width of each step (side to side) must be at least 
400 millimetres;
	(d)	all steps must be of the same depth, except for auxiliary 
steps;
	(e)	step nosing at the floor level must be flush with the floor.
6   If an emergency exit is provided in the roof of a handi-bus, it must 
be designed so that it is operable from the exterior of the handi-bus.
7   A handi-bus must be equipped with
	(a)	a light at the lift door that illuminates the lift area and 
operates automatically when the lift door opens, and
	(b)	a light above or beside each passenger access door that 
illuminates the steps and operates automatically when the 
door opens.
8   Floor covering material must be skid-resistant.
9   All passenger seating and seats must comply with the following:
	(a)	in the case of mobility aid seating, seats must be forward or 
rearward facing;
	(b)	in the case of ambulatory passenger seating,
	(i)	the distance from the front of each seat back to the back 
of the seat ahead, measured on a horizontal plane at the 
centre of the seat cushion's surface, must be at least 
685 millimetres,
	(ii)	the minimum rump width allowed for each person must 
be at least 380 millimetres,
	(iii)	the height of the seat cushion above the floor must be 
not less than 400 millimetres nor more than 
480 millimetres,
	(iv)	the depth of the seat must be not less than 
380 millimetres nor more than 430 millimetres,
	(v)	seat cushions must be level or sloped downwards 
toward the seat back, and
	(vi)	seat backs must be at least 380 millimetres high;
	(c)	in the case of all passenger seating,
	(i)	where a passageway is required for movement of a 
mobility aid, there must be a clear width of at least 
760 millimetres between fixed objects, and
	(ii)	for each seat designated for use by a person with a 
physical disability, there must be at least a Type 1 
occupant restraint provided;
	(d)	grab bars and handles must have a diameter of not more than 
75 millimetres;
	(e)	the interior of the handi-bus must be free of all non-essential 
projections that could cause injury, and there must be an 
interior lining on the ceiling and walls of the handi-bus;
	(f)	any of the following structures that could cause injury to 
passengers in their seated position must be equipped with 
non-rotating padding:
	(i)	stanchions;
	(ii)	grab bars and handles, except those at an entrance to the 
handi-bus;
	(iii)	guard rails;
	(iv)	exposed stationary parts of lifts and ramps.
10   The location of emergency equipment must be clearly marked if it 
is not visible.
11   A handi-bus must be equipped with seat belt cutters.
12(1)  A lift platform must be at least 760 millimetres in width and 
1115 millimetres in length.
(2)  The lift platform must meet the following requirements:
	(a)	the platform must have a skid-resistant surface;
	(b)	the sides of the platform must be fitted with guards that are 
not less than 25 millimetres nor more than 50 millimetres in 
height and that extend the full length on each side of the 
platform, and the outside of the guards must be clearly 
marked with yellow or white reflective material, which is in 
contrast to the background;
	(c)	the platform must be equipped with a roll stop at the outer 
edge, and the roll stop must be
	(i)	approximately in the vertical position when the platform 
is in the lifting and lowering mode,
	(ii)	a minimum of 100 millimetres in height in the raised 
position,
	(iii)	clearly marked with yellow and black reflective 
diagonal strips on the outside of the roll stop, and
	(iv)	designed so that it retracts when the platform reaches 
the lower limit of travel;
	(d)	where the platform extends outside the body of the 
handi-bus, the platform must be equipped with a handrail on 
each side that is not less than 635 millimetres nor more than 
865 millimetres from the platform and remains at a constant 
height while the platform is in operation;
	(e)	where the platform extends outside the body of the 
handi-bus, the platform must be equipped with a restraining 
device that is positioned not less than 623 millimetres nor 
more than 865 millimetres above the platform when the 
platform is in the operating position, to prevent the mobility 
aid from rolling off the platform.
(3)  Exposed moving parts of the lift, such as chains, sprockets and 
gears, must be equipped with adequate guards.
(4)  The lift controls must meet the following requirements:
	(a)	there must be only one control and it must be designed to 
prevent accidental operation of the lift and must be stored in 
a safe place when not being used by the operator;
	(b)	the control must be in a location that permits the operator to 
stand anywhere around the edge of the platform when 
operating the lift;
	(c)	the control must be designed to be operable using one hand 
only, and must use continuous pressure operation;
	(d)	the control must be equipped with an interlock device 
designed to prevent operation of the lift if the restraining 
device is not coupled, the parking brake is not engaged or the 
transmission gear shift is not secured in the "park" position;
	(e)	the control must be equipped with a manual override device 
to enable the operator to raise and lower the platform, with or 
without load, and return the lift to the stowed position in the 
case of a power failure;
	(f)	the manual override device must be accessible for use by the 
operator, and a notice outlining detailed step-by-step 
instructions for the operating procedure must be posted 
alongside the actuation point;
	(g)	a powered closing lift must be designed so that it will fold 
only when it is in the "up" position.
(5)  A notice or pictogram must be posted on the lift, advising of the 
caution to stand clear, and the lettering must be
	(a)	at least 25 millimetres in height in the case of a notice and at 
least 50 millimetres in height if the lettering is accompanied 
by a pictogram, and
	(b)	in a colour that contrasts with the background.
13(1)  A service ramp on a handi-bus must meet the requirements of 
this section.
(2)  This section does not apply to emergency exit ramps.
(3)  The maximum gradient of a service ramp is 1 in 4.
(4)  A service ramp must be at least 760 millimetres wide.
(5)  The surface of a service ramp must be made of skid-resistant 
material.
(6)  A service ramp must be fitted with guards that are not less than 
25 millimetres nor more than 50 millimetres in height and the outside 
of the guards must be clearly marked with yellow or white reflective 
material, which is in contrast to the background.
(7)  A power operated service ramp must meet the following 
requirements:
	(a)	exposed moving parts, such as chains, sprockets and gears 
must be equipped with adequate guards;
	(b)	the control for the ramp must meet the following 
requirements:
	(i)	there must be only one control and it must be designed 
to prevent accidental operation of the ramp and must be 
stored in a safe place when not being used by the 
operator;
	(ii)	the control must be equipped with an interlock device 
designed to prevent operation of the ramp if the parking 
brake is not engaged or the transmission gear shift is not 
secured in the "park" position;
	(iii)	the control must be equipped with a manual override 
device to enable the operator to raise and lower the 
ramp, with or without load, and return the ramp to the 
stowed position in the case of a power failure;
	(iv)	the manual override device must be accessible for use 
by the operator, and a notice outlining detailed 
step-by-step instructions for the hand-moving procedure 
must be posted alongside the actuation point.
(8)  If the ramp is stored in the passenger compartment, it must be 
secured in accordance with the ramp manufacturer's instructions.
14(1)  A handi-bus must have affixed to it at the following locations 
on the handi-bus an accessibility symbol as shown in Figure 1 of this 
Schedule:
	(a)	on the rear of the handi-bus, left of centre;
	(b)	on the front of the handi-bus, right of centre;
	(c)	on both sides of the body of the handi-bus, just behind the 
driver's station.
(2)  The accessibility symbol must be white on a blue background.
Figure 1 
 
Accessibility Symbol
 


--------------------------------
Alberta Regulation 213/2006
Traffic Safety Act
COMMERCIAL BUS EQUIPMENT AND SAFETY REGULATION
Filed: August 29, 2006
For information only:   Made by the Minister of Infrastructure and Transportation 
(M.O. 33/06) on August 28, 2006 pursuant to sections 81 and 156 of the Traffic 
Safety Act. 
Table of Contents
	1	Definitions
	2	Application of Regulation
Part 1 
Visual Inspections
	3	Commercial bus must meet standards
	4	Visual inspections
	5	15 000 km inspections
Part 2 
Maintenance and Operation of 
Commercial Buses
	6	Notice of defects
	7	Maintenance program
	8	Replacement parts
	9	Repairs, etc.
	10	Records
	11	Maintenance of records
	12	Interference with records
	13	Right hand drive
	14	Fuel
	15	Stationary bus
	16	First aid kit
	17	Luggage, express, equipment and tools
	18	Mirrors
Part 3 
Transitional, Repeal, Expiry 
and Coming into Force
	19	Transitional
	20	Repeal
	21	Expiry
	22	Coming into force 
 
Schedules
Definitions
1   In this Regulation,
	(a)	"Act" means the Traffic Safety Act;
	(b)	"commercial bus" means a public vehicle that transports 
passengers for compensation;
	(c)	"commercial school bus" means a Type I, Type II, Type III 
or Type IV school bus as described in the Canadian Standard 
Association D250-M1985, as amended, and that is used as a 
commercial bus instead of as a school bus as defined in the 
School Bus Operation Regulation (AR 437/86);
	(d)	"driver" means a person who drives a commercial bus;
	(e)	"maintenance program" means a program referred to in 
section 7;
	(f)	"motor coach" means a type of commercial bus commonly 
known in the transportation industry as a motor coach;
	(g)	"notice of defect" means a notice issued by a manufacturer, 
distributor or importer of a motor vehicle as prescribed by the 
Motor Vehicle Safety Act (Canada);
	(h)	"operating authority certificate" means an operating authority 
certificate issued under the Commercial Vehicle Certificate 
and Insurance Regulation (AR 314/2002) or a permit issued 
under the Act;
	(i)	"safety standards" means the standards that a commercial bus 
must meet as prescribed in Schedule 1;
	(j)	"visual inspection" means an inspection referred to in section 
4;
	(k)	"workshift" means the period of time during which a driver is 
on duty.
Application of Regulation
2   This Regulation does not apply to the following:
	(a)	a livery;
	(b)	a school bus as defined in section 1 of the School Bus 
Operation Regulation (AR 437/86);
	(c)	a transit bus owned and operated by a municipality when the 
transit bus is being operated within the boundaries of that 
municipality.
Part 1 
Visual Inspections
Commercial bus must meet standards
3(1)  No person shall operate a commercial bus unless,
	(a)	in the case of a motor coach, it meets
	(i)	the standards applicable to a motor coach as required 
under the Motor Vehicle Safety Act (Canada) and the 
Motor Vehicle Safety Regulations (Canada), and
	(ii)	the requirements prescribed under this Regulation and 
the Act,
		and
	(b)	in the case of a commercial bus that is a commercial school 
bus, it meets
	(i)	the standards prescribed under the Bus Safety 
Regulation, and
	(ii)	the requirements prescribed under this Regulation and 
the Act other than the requirement that the bus be 
equipped with alternately flashing lights and a stop arm.
(2)  Notwithstanding subsection (1), if the manufacturer of a bus 
constructs a bus to standards that are higher than those referred to in 
subsection (1), no person shall operate that bus as a commercial bus 
unless it is maintained to those higher standards.
Visual inspections
4(1)  The owner of motor coach shall ensure that the vehicle is 
inspected by means of a visual inspection at intervals not exceeding 
15 000 kilometres of operation of the vehicle.
(2)  The driver of a motor coach shall, prior to operating the vehicle at 
the beginning of a workshift and after the driver ceases to operate the 
vehicle at the end of a workshift, visually inspect the vehicle.
(3)  Notwithstanding subsection (1), the Registrar may prescribe a 
longer or shorter distance to be travelled by a motor coach before a 
visual inspection is required.
(4)  When a motor coach is visually inspected pursuant to subsection 
(1), the person performing the inspection shall, in respect of that motor 
coach, complete a Safety Systems Maintenance Inspection form shown 
in Schedule 2.
(5)  A visual inspection carried out under subsection (2) must include 
an inspection of the following equipment:
	(a)	the lighting devices and reflectors;
	(b)	the tires;
	(c)	the wheels and rims;
	(d)	the service brake;
	(e)	the parking brake;
	(f)	the steering mechanism;
	(g)	the horn;
	(h)	the windshield wipers;
	(i)	the rear vision mirrors;
	(j)	the emergency equipment.
15 000 km inspections
5(1)  If the distance travelled by a motor coach does not exceed 15 000 
kilometres in a 6-month period, the owner of the motor coach may 
apply to the Registrar for an extension of the period of time within 
which the motor coach must be inspected under section 4(1).
(2)  On receiving an application under subsection (1) in respect of a 
motor coach, the Registrar shall, if the Registrar is satisfied that a 
subsisting vehicle inspection certificate has been issued under the 
Vehicle Inspection Regulation for that motor coach, extend the period 
of time within which the motor coach must be inspected for at least 
one year from the date of the application.
(3)  Where the Registrar grants an extension of time under subsection 
(2), the Registrar may, as a condition of granting the extension, require 
that the motor coach be inspected when the motor coach has travelled a 
distance of 15 000 kilometres from the date that the latest inspection 
certificate was issued in respect of that motor coach notwithstanding 
that the extension of the time may not have yet expired.
Part 2 
Maintenance and Operation of 
Commercial Buses
Notice of defects
6   A driver of a commercial bus shall inform the owner of the bus of 
any defect or deficiency that would affect the safe operation of the bus.
Maintenance program
7(1)  The owner of a commercial bus must have a maintenance 
program that pertains to that vehicle and shall carry out the program in 
accordance with its terms.
(2)  A maintenance program must be set out in writing and provide for 
a continuous and regular program for the maintenance and repair of the 
owner's commercial buses that,
	(a)	in the case of a motor coach, meets the requirements of 
Schedule 1, or
	(b)	in the case of a commercial school bus, meets the 
requirements of the Bus Safety Regulation.
Replacement parts
8   When a commercial bus requires repairs in order to comply with 
section 3, the replacement parts used in the repair of the bus
	(a)	must be designed for the particular application for which they 
are used,
	(b)	where practicable, must be certified by a standards testing 
organization approved by the Registrar for the purposes of 
this section, and
	(c)	must be properly installed.
Repairs, etc.
9   When the owner of a commercial bus receives a notice of defect in 
respect of the bus, the owner shall forthwith
	(a)	repair or otherwise modify the bus, or cause it to be repaired 
or modified, in accordance with instructions provided by the 
manufacturer, or
	(b)	if instructions are not given by the manufacturer, repair or 
otherwise modify the bus in accordance with good trade 
practices.
Records
10   The owner of a commercial bus shall maintain, or cause to be 
maintained, the following records pertaining to each bus used in the 
owner's business:
	(a)	an identification of the bus, including
	(i)	where a unit number has been assigned to the bus by the 
owner, that unit number, and where no such unit 
number has been assigned, the manufacturer's serial 
number or similar identifying mark,
	(ii)	the make of the bus,
	(iii)	the year of manufacture, and
	(iv)	the size of the tires with which the bus is equipped;
	(b)	the name of the person furnishing the bus, if that person is 
not the registered owner of the bus;
	(c)	a record of visual inspections, repairs, lubrication and 
maintenance for the bus, including
	(i)	the nature of the work performed on the bus, and
	(ii)	the date on which the visual inspection or work took 
place and the mileage on the bus at that time;
	(d)	modifications to the bus involving
	(i)	axles, or
	(ii)	suspensions,
		that affect the gross vehicle weight rating or the gross axle 
weight rating determined by the manufacturer of the bus;
	(e)	notices of defect received from the vehicle manufacturer and 
the corrective work done on the bus in relation to those 
notices.
Maintenance of records
11(1)  Subject to subsections (2) and (3), the records referred to in 
section 10 must
	(a)	be retained by the owner for the calendar year in which the 
records were made and the 4 calendar years immediately 
following, and
	(b)	be located at or made available through the owner's main 
place of business in Alberta.
(2)  Notwithstanding subsection (1)(a), when a commercial bus is 
permanently retired from use in the commercial bus business by the 
owner or is disposed of, records kept in respect of that bus must be 
retained for a period of 6 months from the date that the bus was so 
retired or disposed of.
(3)  Notwithstanding subsection (1)(b),
	(a)	when a commercial bus is being repaired or serviced at a 
location other than the owner's main place of business, 
records pertaining to the bus may be kept at that location for 
a period of up to 30 days from the completion of the repairs 
or servicing prior to being forwarded to the owner's main 
place of business, and
	(b)	the Registrar may, on application by an owner, allow records 
pertaining to a commercial bus to be kept at a location other 
than the owner's main place of business in Alberta.
Interference with records
12   No person shall mutilate, deface, falsify or alter any of the records 
required under section 10.
Right hand drive
13   No person shall use or permit the use of a right hand drive vehicle 
as a commercial bus.
Fuel
14   No person shall transport or permit the transport of fuel on a 
commercial bus other than in the fuel system or tank of the bus.
Stationary bus
15   Section 3(2)(b) and (3)(d)(ii) of the Commercial Vehicle General 
Equipment and Safety Regulation (AR 435/86) do not apply to a 
commercial bus that is stopped on a highway while a passenger, 
luggage or express is being loaded on or taken off the bus.
First aid kit
16(1)  No person shall operate or permit a person to operate a 
commercial bus unless the bus is equipped with a first aid kit that 
contains the items described in Schedule 3.
(2)  The first aid kit must be readily accessible to the driver of the bus.
Luggage, express, equipment and tools
17(1)  No person shall operate or permit a person to operate a 
commercial bus unless the luggage, express, equipment and tools that 
are carried on a commercial bus are carried in an adequate place 
provided for the carrying of those items.
(2)  The place provided for carrying luggage, express, equipment or 
tools must
	(a)	not interfere with free access to the exits of the bus,
	(b)	be constructed so as to prevent the luggage, express, 
equipment or tools from falling on or against a passenger, 
and
	(c)	in the case of passenger luggage, protect the luggage from 
dust and moisture.
Mirrors
18   In addition to any requirements or standards prescribed under the 
Motor Vehicle Safety Act (Canada), the Motor Vehicle Safety 
Regulations (Canada) and the Vehicle Equipment Regulation 
(AR 322/2002) that relate to mirrors, no person shall operate or permit 
a person to operate a commercial bus unless the bus also has
	(a)	at least one mirror that affords to the driver of the bus from 
the driver's normal operating position a complete view of the 
interior of the bus, and
	(b)	in the case of a bus that has an exit located other than on the 
right side of the bus at the front of the bus, at least one mirror 
that affords to the driver of the bus from the driver's normal 
operating position a complete view of that other exit and 
steps leading to that exit.
Part 3 
Transitional, Repeal, Expiry 
and Coming into Force
Transitional
19(1)  For purposes of the Procedures Regulation (AR 233/89), 
references to the Commercial Bus Inspection, Equipment and Safety 
Regulation (AR 428/91) are deemed to be references to this 
Regulation.
(2)  Section 20(2)(d) of the Commercial Vehicle Certificate 
and Insurance Regulation (AR 314/2002) is amended by 
striking out "Commercial Bus Inspection, Equipment and Safety 
Regulation (AR 428/91)" and substituting "Commercial Bus 
Equipment and Safety Regulation".
Repeal
20   The Commercial Bus Inspection, Equipment and Safety 
Regulation (AR 428/91) is repealed.
Expiry
21   For the purpose of ensuring that this Regulation is reviewed for 
ongoing relevancy and necessity, with the option that it may be 
repassed in its present or an amended form following a review, this 
Regulation expires on December 31, 2008.
Coming into force
22   This Regulation comes into force on January 1, 2007.
Schedule 1 
 
Minimum Vehicle Safety Systems 
Maintenance Standards

Table of Contents
Part 1 
Body and Frame
	1	Bus body and seats
	2	Subframe
	3	Body frame
	4	Underbody
	5	Windows and mirrors
Part 2 
Fuel and Exhaust
	6	Fuel
	7	Exhaust
	8	Engine controls
Part 3 
Brakes
	9	Friction components
	10	Mechanical linkages
	11	Hydraulic, vacuum and air brake components
	12	Service brake pedal
	13	Brake warning device
	14	Emergency or parking brake
	15	Air brake system
	16	Stopping capability
Part 4 
Lights and Electrical
	17	Lamps, reflectors and battery
	18	Horn
	19	Transmission neutral safety starting switch
	20	Windshield wipers and washers
	21	Instruments
	22	Door interlocks
	23	Heater, defroster and hoses
Part 5 
Steering and Suspension
	24	Steering
	25	Wheel alignment
	26	Suspension
	27	Driveline
Part 6 
Wheels and Tires
	28	Wheels
	29	Tires
Part 7 
Lubrication
	30	Lubrication
Part 8 
Cleanliness, Safety and Emergency Equipment
	31	Cleanliness
	32	Fire fighting equipment
	33	First aid kit
	34	Warning devices
Part 1 
Body and Frame
Bus body and seats
1(1)  The body, sheet metal equipment, main doors, emergency exits 
and seats of a commercial bus must comply with the standards set out 
in subsection (2).
(2)  The standards to be met by the body, sheet metal equipment, main 
doors, emergency exits and seats are as follows:
	(a)	each bumper, fender, moulding and other part must
	(i)	not be missing,
	(ii)	be securely mounted, and
	(iii)	not be broken, bent or have sharp edges;
	(b)	each splash shield, mud guard and mud flap shall be in the 
proper position;
	(c)	each door and the roof emergency hatch must
	(i)	not have missing or excessively loose or torn, flexible 
material on closing edges, where that material was 
originally fitted,
	(ii)	close securely, and
	(iii)	be easily opened from the inside;
	(d)	adequate directions for the emergency use of the roof hatch 
must be displayed on or adjacent to the roof hatch;
	(e)	door controls must
	(i)	operate smoothly, and
	(ii)	have seals that are in good condition;
	(f)	the engine compartment doors must latch securely;
	(g)	each seat must
	(i)	be securely mounted, and
	(ii)	retain its position in accordance with the requirements 
of the Motor Vehicle Safety Regulations, CRC c. 1038 
that are applicable to seat anchorage;
	(h)	floor and stepwell coverings must
	(i)	be in good condition, and
	(ii)	have no loose edges;
	(i)	if the bus is equipped with baggage racks, the baggage racks 
must be securely mounted and not have any broken, missing, 
excessively worn or excessively stretched package retaining 
components;
	(j)	the driver's sun visor
	(i)	must be firmly mounted, and
	(ii)	must not be able to shake out of position;
	(k)	each stanchion, grab handle, guard rail and guard panel must 
be securely mounted and fastening parts must not be missing;
	(l)	energy absorbing material installed by the manufacturer on 
stanchions, guard rails or the tops or sides of seat backs must 
not be missing;
	(m)	the hood latch
	(i)	must not be missing, and
	(ii)	must hold the hood securely;
	(n)	the safety catch of a front opening hood latch
	(i)	must not be missing, and
	(ii)	must operate smoothly;
	(o)	where the bus has an emergency exit that is a door, the 
emergency door must
	(i)	be unobstructed,
	(ii)	be located at the rear of the bus or near the left side of 
the bus, and
	(iii)	open freely when the release mechanism is actuated 
from inside the bus and, where the vehicle is fitted with 
an outside release, from outside the bus;
	(p)	any emergency door warning device must function properly;
	(q)	where the bus has a separate exit door other than a door to be 
used for emergency purposes only,
	(i)	when the driver's door control is in the closed position 
and the exit door is fully closed
	(A)	the exit door must not open when a moderate 
amount of manual force is applied in an effort to 
open it, and
	(B)	the audible or visual warning device, where fitted, 
must function properly,
	(ii)	when the driver's door control is in the position to open 
the exit door,
	(A)	the brake and accelerator interlock systems, where 
fitted, must automatically apply the rear brakes and 
hold them in the applied position, and
	(B)	the engine speed must be prevented from 
exceeding idle speed until the door control is 
moved to the closed position and the door has 
closed,
			and
	(iii)	when the exit door is fitted with sensitive edges and the 
door is not fully closed, manual pressure applied to each 
sensitive edge must
	(A)	reopen the door,
	(B)	actuate any audible or visual warning device,
	(C)	cause the brake and accelerator interlock systems, 
where fitted, to automatically apply the rear brakes 
and hold them in the applied position, and
	(D)	prevent the engine speed from exceeding idle 
speed
		until the door control is moved to the closed position 
and the door has closed;
	(r)	where the bus is fitted with exterior compartment doors, each 
door must
	(i)	be securely attached to the body,
	(ii)	function properly, and
	(iii)	be equipped with a lock, latch or spring device that 
holds it closed securely;
	(s)	where the bus is used to transport physically disabled 
persons,
	(i)	all devices used to secure passenger access or 
emergency exit doors
	(A)	must operate as intended, and
	(B)	must not have any damage apparent on visual 
inspection that would reduce their effectiveness,
	(ii)	no plate, cover or energy absorbing material required to 
protect persons from sharp edges or corners shall be 
missing or damaged so as to reduce its effectiveness,
	(iii)	if the bus is fitted with wheelchair securement devices,
	(A)	each anchorage device must be secure,
	(B)	each component part must operate as intended, and
	(C)	a component part must not have damage apparent 
on visual inspection that would reduce its 
effectiveness,
	(iv)	if the bus is fitted with occupant restraint assemblies, 
each component part
	(A)	must operate as intended, and
	(B)	must not have damage apparent on visual 
inspection that would reduce its effectiveness,
	(v)	if the bus is fitted with occupant restraint assemblies 
anchored to the vehicle, each restraint assembly 
anchorage must be secure,
	(vi)	if the bus is fitted with an emergency exit door,
	(A)	the passage of ambulatory persons or persons in 
wheelchairs must not be blocked by any fixed 
obstruction, and
	(B)	the door release mechanism must function from 
inside and outside the vehicle,
	(vii)	if the bus is fitted with a ramp or power lift,
	(A)	the means of attachment of the ramp or power lift 
to the vehicle must be secure with no fastening 
parts missing, and
	(B)	when the ramp or power lift is in the stored 
position, the ramp or power lift shall be secured by 
means other than a support or lug in the door, and 
in such a manner as to pose no potential hazard to 
occupants of the vehicle,
			and
	(viii)	if the bus is equipped with a power lift, the lift platform 
must rise and descend smoothly when activated by the 
appropriate controls.
(3)  Subsection (2)(c) and (o) do not apply to a commercial bus used 
for the purpose of transporting
	(a)	a person who is
	(i)	committed to a correctional institution, as defined in the 
Corrections Act, or a jail, including a military guard 
room, remand centre, penitentiary, facility or place 
designated as a place of open or secure custody pursuant 
to the Youth Criminal Justice Act (Canada), a place of 
custody, as defined in the Youth Justice Act, a detention 
center or a place where a person is held under a warrant 
of a judge, or
	(ii)	under arrest,
		or
	(b)	physically disabled persons.
Subframe
2(1)  The subframe must comply with the standards set out in 
subsection (2).
(2)  The standards to be met by the subframe are as follows:
	(a)	subframe members must not be cracked;
	(b)	subframe members must not have loose rivets or bolts;
	(c)	subframe members, rivets and bolts must not show any 
corrosion.
Body frame
3(1)  A unitized or monocoque body of a commercial bus must comply 
with the standards set out in subsection (2).
(2)  The standards to be met by the body frame are as follows:
	(a)	structural members must not be cracked;
	(b)	structural members must not be perforated by corrosion;
	(c)	no structural member shall be missing;
	(d)	a chassis frame member must not have loose connecting 
fasteners.
Underbody
4(1)  In this section, "underbody" does not include the underbody of a 
separate cargo body.
(2)  The underbody of a commercial bus must comply with the 
standards set out in subsection (3).
(3)  The standards to be met by the underbody are as follows:
	(a)	the underbody must not have any perforations;
	(b)	the underbody must be in a safe condition;
	(c)	the underbody must not have any openings other than those 
designed by the manufacturer.
Windows and mirrors
5(1)  The windshields, windows and mirrors must comply with the 
standards set out in subsection (2).
(2)  The standards to be met by windshields, windows and mirrors are 
as follows:
	(a)	opaque material or any other material must not be fitted in 
place of glazing in the windshield or in the 2 front side 
windows to the left or right of the driver's seat;
	(b)	glazing material must not
	(i)	be cracked, grazed, discoloured or fogged,
	(ii)	have exposed sharp edges, or
	(iii)	have any part missing;
	(c)	all glass used must comply with the standards and 
specifications set out in the code for Safety Glazing Materials 
for Glazing Motor Vehicles Operating on Land Highways, as 
published by the American Standards Association;
	(d)	the windshield must be fitted with safety glass designated as 
AS1 or AS10 within the meaning of the American Standard 
Safety Code;
	(e)	any portion of the side and rear windows necessary to 
provide a clear view for the driver must be fitted with safety 
glass designated as AS1, AS2, AS4, AS6, AS10 or AS11 
within the meaning of the American Standard Safety Code;
	(f)	where the vehicle has interior partitions or openings in the 
roof or windows for standing passengers, the glass used must 
be safety glass designated as AS1, AS2, AS3, AS4, AS5, 
AS6, AS7, AS10, AS11, AS12 or AS13 within the meaning 
of the American Standard Safety Code;
	(g)	where banding was fitted on exposed edges of safety glass, it 
must not be missing, loose or broken;
	(h)	the windshield must not have any star, chip or crack running 
from edge to edge
	(i)	in the area swept by the wiper blades, or
	(ii)	in an area that partly obstructs the operator's field of 
vision;
	(i)	the emergency window must operate smoothly and the seals 
associated with the emergency window must be in place and 
in good condition;
	(j)	adequate directions for the use of the emergency window 
must be displayed on or adjacent to the emergency window;
	(k)	any emergency warning device fitted for the window must 
function properly;
	(l)	where there is a window to the left of the driver's seat that is 
suitable for permitting a hand or arm signal, the window 
must be easily opened from the inside;
	(m)	the inside rear view mirror, left outside mirror and right 
outside mirror must be securely mounted and give the driver 
an unobstructed view;
	(n)	no mirror shall
	(i)	be cracked or broken, or
	(ii)	have a reduction in its reflective surface.
Part 2 
Fuel and Exhaust
Fuel
6(1)  The fuel tank, filler pipe and cap and fuel lines must comply with 
the standards set out in subsection (2).
(2)  The standards to be met by the fuel system are as follows:
	(a)	the mountings or attachments of the fuel tank and fuel lines 
must not be missing and must be secure;
	(b)	the neck of the filler pipe and cap must not be missing and 
must be secure;
	(c)	the fuel system must not leak;
	(d)	all fuel line hose clamps must be in position and secure;
	(e)	if the fuel system is pressurized, the fuel system must meet 
the applicable standards prescribed by the Canadian Gas 
Association.
Exhaust
7(1)  The exhaust pipe, muffler and tailpipe must comply with the 
standards set out in subsection (2).
(2)  The standards to be met by the exhaust system are as follows:
	(a)	no component of the exhaust system shall be missing, 
perforated, patched or insecurely mounted;
	(b)	the bus must have a muffler;
	(c)	no joint or seam shall leak;
	(d)	no component shall cause charring or other heat damage to 
wiring, brake lining, fuel line or combustible material of the 
bus;
	(e)	all exhaust connections except flange type must have exhaust 
clamps;
	(f)	tailpipe must extend to but not protrude beyond the rear 
bumper;
	(g)	no component of the exhaust system shall pass through the 
occupant compartment;
	(h)	the exhaust system shall be designed and situated so that an 
individual who enters or leaves the bus cannot be burned by 
any component;
	(i)	the exhaust system must not be shortened or modified from 
the original equipment so as to fail to direct the exhaust 
beyond the underbody of the bus;
	(j)	the outlet of the exhaust system must not be located more 
than 15 centimetres from the periphery of the underbody past 
which the exhaust is directed.
Engine controls
8(1)  The engine controls, the complete accelerator linkage system and 
the carburetor or injection pump controls and links must comply with 
the standards set out in subsection (2).
(2)  The standards to be met by the engine controls, accelerator linkage 
system, carburetor or injection pump controls and links are as follows:
	(a)	the return spring must be in place and not damaged;
	(b)	no component shall be missing, damaged, worn or out of 
adjustment so as to prevent the engine speed dropping to idle 
with the transmission in neutral when the accelerator pedal is 
released;
	(c)	where the engine is equipped with an emergency braking 
device, the engine must stop when the control is actuated 
while the engine is idling.
Part 3 
Brakes
Function components
9(1)  The friction components of the brake system must comply with 
the standards set out in subsection (2).
(2)  The standards to be met by the brake friction components are as 
follows:
	(a)	a drum or disc must not have any internal or external crack 
on the friction surface, other than a normal heat check crack, 
that may reach the edge of the drum or periphery of the disc;
	(b)	a drum or disc must not have any mechanical damage to the 
friction surface, other than normal wear;
	(c)	a riveted lining surface must not be closer than 2 millimetres 
to any rivet or bolt head;
	(d)	no rivet shall be loose or missing;
	(e)	brake lining must not
	(i)	be broken, cracked or loose on the shoe or pad, or
	(ii)	be so worn as to indicate a defective drum, disc or 
warped shoe;
	(f)	bonded lining must not be thinner than 1.5 millimetres when 
measured at the thinnest point;
	(g)	bolted linings must not be thinner than 8 millimetres when 
measured at the centre of the shoe;
	(h)	oil or grease must not be present in a lining or pad friction 
surface;
	(i)	a ventilated disc must not have broken or visibly cracked 
cooling fins;
	(j)	a drum or disc must not be worn out of round or machined 
beyond the limits recommended by the manufacturers, as 
stamped on the drum or disc;
	(k)	all brakes must be adjusted for minimum lining-to-drum 
clearance without brake drag;
	(l)	no mechanical or structural part of the brake drums or disc 
brake pads shall be misaligned, badly worn, cracked, broken, 
binding, seized, disconnected or insecure;
	(m)	a hydraulic brake cylinder must not show evidence of 
leakage;
	(n)	each automatic adjuster must be functional and perform in 
accordance with the manufacturer's specifications;
	(o)	a hydraulic brake piston must not fail to move when 
moderate pressure is applied to the brake pedal;
	(p)	a grease retainer must not show evidence of leakage or be 
missing.
Mechanical linkages
10(1)  All mechanical linkage components of the brake system must 
comply with the standards set out in subsection (2).
(2)  The standards to be met by the brake mechanical linkage system 
are as follows:
	(a)	mechanical parts must be properly aligned;
	(b)	mechanical parts must not be badly worn, insecure, binding, 
seized, frayed, disconnected, broken or missing.
Hydraulic, vacuum and air brake components
11(1)  In this section, "hydraulic, vacuum and air components" 
includes reservoirs, fittings, valves, supports, hose clamps, 
connections, air chambers, air cleaners, hoses and tubes of the service 
brake system.
(2)  The hydraulic, vacuum and air components of the service brake 
system of a commercial bus must comply with the standards set out in 
subsection (3).
(3)  The standards to be met by the service brake system are as 
follows:
	(a)	there shall be no hydraulic or vacuum leak when
	(i)	vacuum, hydraulic or air boost systems are fully 
charged, and
	(ii)	the service brakes are fully applied or released;
	(b)	hose and tubing must not
	(i)	be abraded, restricted, crimped, cracked, broken or 
disconnected,
	(ii)	chafe against any part of the bus, or
	(iii)	have damaged or missing clamps or supports;
	(c)	the brake tubing must not show any indication of leakage or 
heavy corrosion scaling;
	(d)	the minimum hydraulic fluid level in any reservoir must
	(i)	not be lower than the level specified by the 
manufacturer, or
	(ii)	if no specification is made by the manufacturer, not be 
more than 10 millimetres below the lowest edge of each 
filler opening;
	(e)	where the system is comprised of power-boosted hydraulic 
brakes, the service brake pedal shall move towards the 
applied position when the vacuum, air or hydraulic pressure 
is first depleted by stopping the engine and the engine is then 
started and moderate pressure is applied on the service brake 
pedal;
	(f)	where the system is equipped with hydraulically-boosted 
hydraulic brakes and an electrically driven hydraulic pump 
for the reserve power system,
	(i)	the pump shall start and run, and
	(ii)	the brake pedal shall move toward the applied position
		when the hydraulic boost is first depleted by stopping the 
engine and moderate pressure is then applied on the service 
brake pedal while moving the ignition switch to the "on" 
position;
	(g)	the air cleaner of the vacuum system or air compressor must 
not be clogged.
Service brake pedal
12(1)  The service brake pedal assembly must comply with the 
standards set out in subsection (2).
(2)  The standards to be met by the service brake pedal assembly are as 
follows: 
	(a)	the service brake pedal shall not move toward the applied 
position when
	(i)	moderate foot force is maintained on the service brake 
pedal for 10 seconds, and
	(ii)	where the brakes are power-boosted, the pressure 
referred to in subclause (i) is applied while the engine is 
running;
	(b)	where the assembly is equipped with a service brake pedal 
pad, the service brake pedal pad must be present, secure and 
not badly worn;
	(c)	where the assembly is equipped with a service brake pedal 
anti-skid surface, the service brake pedal anti-skid surface 
must not be badly worn;
	(d)	the pedal and other components must not bind or cause high 
friction;
	(e)	the pedal lever assembly must be aligned and positioned in 
accordance with the manufacturer's specifications;
	(f)	the total pedal travel shall not exceed 80% of the total 
available travel when
	(i)	heavy foot force is applied to the service brake pedal, 
and
	(ii)	where the brakes are power-boosted, the pressure 
referred to in subclause (i) is applied while the engine is 
running;
	(g)	notwithstanding clause (f), where the bus is equipped with a 
hydraulic boost braking system, the foot force applied to the 
pedal for the purposes of clause (f)(i) shall not exceed 8.3 
newtons;
	(h)	the hydraulic master cylinder push rod must be properly 
adjusted;
	(i)	the brake failure warning lamp must be operative;
	(j)	the brake failure warning lamp must not come on when
	(i)	heavy foot force is maintained on the service brake 
pedal, and
	(ii)	in the case of brakes that are power-boosted, the 
pressure referred to in subclause (i) is applied while the 
engine is running;
	(k)	notwithstanding clause (j), where the bus is equipped with a 
hydraulic boost braking system, the foot force applied to the 
pedal for the purposes of clause (j) shall not exceed 8.3 
newtons;
	(l)	the vacuum gauge must be operative;
	(m)	with the engine stopped, the low vacuum warning device 
must operate,
	(i)	where a vacuum gauge is fitted, prior to the vacuum 
reserve dropping to less than 20 centimetres of mercury, 
or
	(ii)	where a vacuum gauge is not fitted, in sufficient time so 
that there is at least one boosted brake application 
available after the warning device is activated.
Brake warning device
13(1)  The brake low pressure warning device must comply with the 
standards set out in subsection (2).
(2)  The standard to be met by the brake low pressure warning device 
is that the air brake light or warning device must come on when the air 
pressure is reduced to between 414 kilopascals and 345 kilopascals 
gauge range.
Emergency or parking brake
14(1)  The emergency or parking brake system must comply with the 
standards set out in subsection (2).
(2)  The standards to be met by the emergency or parking brake system 
are as follows:
	(a)	the emergency or parking brake when applied must hold the 
vehicle on a 20% grade;
	(b)	the mechanism while in the "off" position must fully release 
the brakes;
	(c)	pull cables if applicable
	(i)	must not be worn, stretched or frayed, and
	(ii)	must operate freely;
	(d)	the parking brake, when fully applied and not held by foot or 
hand force or by hydraulic or air pressure, shall hold the bus 
stationary against the engine momentarily while the bus is 
operated in reverse gear and low forward gear at a light 
throttle setting;
	(e)	the emergency brake, when fully applied and with the 
transmission in a low forward gear, must momentarily hold 
the bus stationary against the engine at a light throttle setting;
	(f)	when the emergency brake mechanism is in the fully applied 
position there must be reserve travel available.
Air brake system
15(1)  This section applies to a commercial bus that is equipped with 
air brakes.
(2)  The air brake system must comply with the standards set out in 
subsection (3).
(3)  The standards to be met by the air brake system are as follows:
	(a)	hoses, tubes and connections must not
	(i)	leak or be restricted, abraded, crimped, cracked or 
broken;
	(ii)	rub against any bus structure;
	(iii)	have damaged or missing clamps or supports;
	(b)	the air safety valve must operate in accordance with the 
manufacturer's specifications;
	(c)	the compressor drive belt where applicable must
	(i)	be adjusted to the tension specified by the manufacturer, 
and
	(ii)	not be cracked or frayed;
	(d)	the air compressor air cleaner must be clean;
	(e)	the time required to build up air pressure from 344 
kilopascals to 620 kilopascals must not exceed 2 minutes 
when the engine is running at a steady fast idle;
	(f)	the low pressure warning device must operate when system 
pressure is reduced to 379 kilopascals;
	(g)	the governor cut in pressure must not be lower than 551 
kilopascals gauge measure and the cut out pressure must not 
be higher than 930 kilopascals gauge measure unless other 
pressures are specified by the manufacturer;
	(h)	with the air brake system fully charged and the engine 
stopped, air pressure drop must not exceed,
	(i)	with the service brakes released, 14 kilopascals in one 
minute, and
	(ii)	with the service brake fully applied, 20 kilopascals in 
one minute;
	(i)	compressed air reserve must be sufficient to permit
	(i)	2 full service brake applications from governor cut in 
pressure, or
	(ii)	after the engine is stopped, one full service brake 
application from the fully charged system without 
lowering reservoir pressure more than 20%;
	(j)	the air pressure gauge must be operative;
	(k)	each air reservoir drain valve must
	(i)	be actuated, and
	(ii)	function properly when the air system is fully charged 
and the engine is running.
Stopping capability
16(1)  The service brake system must comply with the standards set 
out in subsection (2).
(2)  The standards to be met by the service brake system are as 
follows:
	(a)	when maximum service brake pressure is applied at a speed 
of between 10 and 30 kilometres per hour, the wheels must 
lock;
	(b)	the components of the service brake system must not fail;
	(c)	the bus must not pull to the right or left when the brake is 
applied;
	(d)	the brakes must release immediately when pressure is 
released from the pedal;
	(e)	braking efficiency must be within the recommendation of the 
dynamometer or meter manufacturer;
	(f)	the brakes must be properly adjusted.
Part 4 
Lights and Electrical
Lamps, reflectors and battery
17(1)  All prescribed lamps, lights and reflectors must comply with the 
standards set out in subsection (2).
(2)  The standards to be met by lamps, lights and reflectors are as 
follows:
	(a)	every filament in every bulb or unit must light when switched 
to the "on" position;
	(b)	a circuit must not interfere with another circuit;
	(c)	all lenses and reflectors must be in place, unbroken and 
correctly mounted;
	(d)	each lamp must
	(i)	not be missing, and
	(ii)	be securely mounted;
	(e)	a lamp must not be coated with a coloured lacquer;
	(f)	a lamp must not be modified by the attachment of any device 
to the lamp or to the bus that reduces
	(i)	the effective area of the lens, or
	(ii)	the brightness of the light;
	(g)	each headlamp shutter or retracting headlamp must
	(i)	operate over the full range of movement, or
	(ii)	be secured in the fully open position;
	(h)	the turn signal lamp switch and the flasher must operate in 
accordance with the manufacturer's specifications and the 
indicator lamp must flash;
	(i)	the high and low beam switch must operate in accordance 
with the manufacturer's specifications;
	(j)	the high beam indicator lamp must light and must operate in 
accordance with the manufacturer's specifications;
	(k)	the hazard warning lamps must operate in accordance with 
the manufacturer's specifications and the indicator lamp must 
flash;
	(l)	the engine, headlight, stop and tail light and hazard light 
wiring harness must not be damaged by abrasion or 
deterioration;
	(m)	the battery cables must be in good condition, free of 
corrosion and firmly attached to the battery, starter and 
engine;
	(n)	the battery must be free of corrosion and in good condition 
and securely attached to the bus;
	(o)	the alternator belts must be adjusted in accordance with the 
manufacturer's recommendations and must not be cracked or 
frayed;
	(p)	where a mechanical aimer is used, the head lamp aim must be 
in accordance with the manufacturer's specifications;
	(q)	when measured on an aiming board constructed in 
accordance with the Society of Automotive Engineers 
Standards No. J602 specifications, as amended,
	(i)	the centre of a head lamp on the high beam high 
intensity zone must
	(A)	not be above or more than 10 centimetres below 
the horizontal centre line of the lamp, and
	(B)	not be more than 10 centimetres to the left or right 
of the vertical centre line of the lamp,
	(ii)	the top edge of a head lamp on the low beam high 
intensity zone must not be more than 5 centimetres 
above or below the horizontal centre line of the lamp, 
and
	(iii)	the left edge of the low line of the lamp and the left 
edge of the low beam high intensity zone must not be to 
the left or more than 15 centimetres to the right of the 
vertical centre line of the lamp.
Horn
18(1)  The horn must comply with the standards set out in subsection 
(2).
(2)  The standards to be met by the horn are as follows:
	(a)	the horn must be secure on its mounting;
	(b)	the horn operating mechanism must function in accordance 
with the manufacturer's specifications.
Transmission neutral safety starting switch
19(1)  If a commercial bus has an automatic transmission, the neutral 
safety starting switch must comply with the standards set out in 
subsection (2).
(2)  The standards to be met by the neutral safety starting switch are as 
follows:
	(a)	the neutral safety starting switch must not be missing;
	(b)	the starter must operate only when the gear selector or 
transmission is in the "P" or "N" position.
Windshield wipers and washers
20(1)  The windshield wipers and washers must comply with the 
standards set out in subsection (2).
(2)  The standards to be met by the windshield wipers and washers are 
as follows:
	(a)	each part of the windshield wiper system must be in place 
and not be worn or in a condition so that its effectiveness is 
impaired;
	(b)	each wiper arm and blade assembly must sweep the area 
specified by the manufacturer;
	(c)	the windshield washer system must function in accordance 
with the manufacturer's specifications.
Instruments
21(1)  All instruments and gauges must comply with the standards set 
out in subsection (2).
(2)  The standards to be met by the instruments and gauges are as 
follows:
	(a)	all instruments and gauges must be functional and clearly 
visible to the operator;
	(b)	a lens must not be scratched, cracked or impair the legibility 
for the operator;
	(c)	all instrument and gauge lights must be functional.
Door interlocks
22   If a commercial bus is equipped with a loading and unloading 
door interlock system, the interlock system, braking system and master 
override controls must function in accordance with the manufacturer's 
specifications.
Heater, defroster and hoses
23(1)  The interior heater, heater motor, defroster and hoses must 
comply with the standards set out in subsection (2).
(2)  The standards to be met by interior heaters, heater motors, 
defroster and hoses are as follows:
	(a)	interior heaters must function in accordance with the 
manufacturer's specifications;
	(b)	heater motors and fans must function in accordance with the 
manufacturer's specifications;
	(c)	the windshield defroster system must deliver air to the 
windshield, the driver's side window and the door glass 
panels unless the bus is equipped with frost resistant glass 
panels;
	(d)	all heater hoses and radiator hoses must be in good condition;
	(e)	the visible portions of the hoses and piping for the interior 
heaters routed within the occupant compartment must not be 
abraded, cracked or leaking.
Part 5 
Steering and Suspension
Steering
24(1)  The steering mechanism must comply with the standards set out 
in subsection (2).
(2)  The standards to be met by the steering mechanism are as follows:
	(a)	the steering column and steering box must be securely 
mounted to the body and frame with the prescribed number 
of bolts torqued to the manufacturer's specifications;
	(b)	the steering mast jacket bearings must meet the 
manufacturer's specifications;
	(c)	the steering shaft coupling and spline must be secure with no
	(i)	visible separation of flex couplings, or
	(ii)	visible sign of wear at the splines or U joints;
	(d)	where the steering column is equipped with an energy 
absorbing section, that section must not appear on visual 
inspection to be damaged so as to reduce its effectiveness;
	(e)	free movement of the steering wheel rim must not exceed 30 
degrees or, where a limit is designated by the manufacturer, 
that limit, when
	(i)	the front wheels are stationary and are on the ground in 
the straight ahead position, and
	(ii)	in the case of a bus equipped with power-boosted 
steering, the engine is running;
	(f)	there must be no end play in the worm or sector of the 
steering box;
	(g)	sector bushing wear must not exceed 0.381 millimetres;
	(h)	the front wheels must turn from full right to full left and back 
again without interference, jamming or roughness in the 
mechanism;
	(i)	tie rod ends and drag linkage ends must not have vertical or 
lateral play beyond what is acceptable good shop practice;
	(j)	when the bus is supported so that the steering linkage is in its 
normal attitude, without movement of the opposite wheel, no 
front wheel shall have play about a vertical axis of
	(i)	6 millimetres or more for a tire diameter designation of 
16 or less,
	(ii)	9 millimetres or more for a tire diameter designation 
that is greater than 16 but not greater than 18, or
	(iii)	12 millimetres or more for a tire diameter designation 
that is greater than 18,
		as measured at the extreme front or rear of the tire tread face;
	(k)	the axle king pin eyes must not be out of round;
	(l)	the steering linkage must not be damaged and if damaged 
must be replaced and not repaired;
	(m)	the steering linkage must not be modified so as to adversely 
affect the steering so that the vehicle's steering is no longer 
in accordance with the manufacturer's alignment 
specifications;
	(n)	there must be no excessive play in the steering linkage joint;
	(o)	where power steering is equipped with a belt driven power 
steering pump, the belt must
	(i)	not be missing, cut, frayed or cracked, and
	(ii)	have the tension set in accordance with the 
manufacturer's specifications;
	(p)	power steering hoses must not have cracks, peeling, exterior 
damage or expansion at crimping points;
	(q)	the power steering ram must not be damaged;
	(r)	the power steering ram seal must not leak;
	(s)	the ram ball joints must be adjusted and aligned in 
accordance with the manufacturer's specifications;
	(t)	the fluid in the power steering reservoir must not be lower 
than the minimum level specified by the bus manufacturer;
	(u)	when the engine is running,
	(i)	the power steering system must operate as intended, and
	(ii)	the hydraulic system must not show excessive fluid 
leakage;
	(v)	no nut, bolt or cotter pin shall be loose, badly worn or 
missing.
Wheel alignment
25   The wheels must be aligned so that the wheels are not visibly out 
of alignment while all the wheels are on the ground and the front 
wheels are in the straight ahead position.
Suspension
26(1)  The suspension must comply with the standards set out in 
subsection (2).
(2)  The standards to be met by the suspension are as follows:
	(a)	the rear axle must track in accordance with the 
manufacturer's specifications;
	(b)	front and rear springs, shackles, U-bolts, centrebolts, radius 
rods, control arms, shock-absorbers, equalizers, stabilizers 
and their supports and attachments must not be loose, bent, 
cracked, broken, disconnected, perforated by corrosion or 
missing;
	(c)	shackle pins and bushings must not have a combined wear of 
more than 4.75 millimetres;
	(d)	radius rods and stabilizer link bushings must not be loose;
	(e)	the shock-absorbers must not leak;
	(f)	nuts and bolts must not be loose, worn or missing;
	(g)	cotter pins must not be missing;
	(h)	where the bus is equipped with full air brakes and the engine 
is started with a zero gauge air brake system, air shall not 
begin to flow into the suspension system until the pressure in 
the brake system reaches 379 kilopascals gauge measure;
	(i)	no air leakage shall occur when air in the suspension system 
is at normal operating pressure and the pusher or tag axle, if 
fitted, is tested in the load and reduced load sharing modes;
	(j)	where the system has a pusher or tag axle, the pusher or tag 
axle shall respond properly to its load sharing control switch 
or valve when air in the suspension system is at normal 
operating pressure;
	(k)	when air in the suspension system is at normal operating 
pressure, the body and chassis frame must
	(i)	be supported clear of all axles, and
	(ii)	appear to be level;
	(l)	suspension joints of a variable load sharing axle with 
independent suspension must not be worn beyond the limits 
specified by the manufacturer;
	(m)	ball joints that carry load must not have play in excess of the 
manufacturer's specifications;
	(n)	ball joints that do not carry load must not show any 
perceptible play other than that specified by the 
manufacturer;
	(o)	the control arm inner pivots must not have excessive play;
	(p)	wheel and axle bearings must not give any indication of 
excessive wear or damage;
	(q)	wheel and axle bearings must not have excess play or 
binding;
	(r)	wear-indicating ball joints must not show excessive wear 
while bearing a load with the wheels of the bus on the 
ground;
	(s)	in the case of king pins, no front wheel shall have a rocking 
play about a horizontal axle in excess of
	(i)	6 millimetres or more for a tire diameter designation of 
16 or less,
	(ii)	9 millimetres or more for a tire diameter designation 
that is greater than 16 but not greater than 18, or
	(iii)	12 millimetres or more for a tire diameter designation 
that is greater than 18,
		as measured at the extreme top or bottom of the tire tread 
face.
Driveline
27(1)  The drive shaft and the universal joints must comply with the 
standards set out in subsection (2).
(2)  The standards to be met by the drive shaft and the universal joints 
are as follows:
	(a)	the drive shaft and the universal joints must not
	(i)	be damaged, or
	(ii)	have any loose, missing or damaged bolts or retainers;
	(b)	the drive shaft slip yokes and stub shaft splines must not be 
worn more than 20% of the original spline width;
	(c)	hanger brackets and drive shaft guards must be securely 
mounted;
	(d)	no drive shaft guard or hanger bracket shall be missing.
Part 6 
Wheels and Tires
Wheels
28(1)  All wheels, studs, rims and wheel bearings installed on axles 
must comply with the standards set out in subsection (2).
(2)  The standards to be met by the wheels, studs, rims and wheel 
bearings installed on axles are as follows:
	(a)	a wheel must not be bent, cracked or damaged so that it does 
not operate in accordance with good shop practice;
	(b)	a wheel that has been repaired must not be used;
	(c)	a wheel stud, bolt, clamp, nut, spacer, lock ring or lug must 
not be loose, missing, damaged, broken, mismatched or have 
insufficient thread engagement;
	(d)	rims must not be bent, cracked or damaged so as to adversely 
affect the seating of the tire beads;
	(e)	wheel bearings, cones and cups must not be pitted or worn 
beyond the manufacturer's specifications;
	(f)	wheel bearings must be adjusted in accordance with the 
manufacturer's specifications;
	(g)	a cast wheel must not show evidence of excessive wear in the 
clamp area;
	(h)	wheel spokes must not be missing, loose or broken.
Tires
29(1)  In this section, "construction type" means a type of tire carcass 
and includes
	(a)	bias ply,
	(b)	belted bias, and
	(c)	radial ply,
but does not include variations in tread pattern or in cord material used 
in building a tire carcass.
(2)  Each tire must comply with the standards set out in subsection (3).
(3)  The standards to be met by the tires are as follows:
	(a)	subject to clauses (b) and (c), a tire must not be worn so that
	(i)	the tread wear indicators contact the road, or
	(ii)	less than 1.5 millimetres of tread remains in any 2 
adjacent major grooves at 3 equally spaced intervals 
around the circumference of the tire;
	(b)	notwithstanding clause (a)(ii),
	(i)	where a transit bus is equipped with dual tires, the 
siping on those tires must not be less than 1.5 
millimetres in depth, and
	(ii)	no commercial bus other than a transit bus shall be 
equipped with tires that show indication of siping only;
	(c)	a front tire shall not be worn so that
	(i)	less than 3 millimetres of tread remains in any 2 
adjacent major grooves at 3 equally spaced intervals 
around the circumference of the tire, or
	(ii)	there is indication of siping only;
	(d)	a snow, lug or grip tire must not be smooth for over 30% of 
its centre;
	(e)	a tire must not have exposed cord at worn spots;
	(f)	a tire must not have cuts or snags deep enough to
	(i)	expose the cord, or
	(ii)	affect the safety of the tire;
	(g)	a tire must not have any abnormal visible lump, bulge or knot 
related to tread or side-wall separation or to failure or partial 
failure of the tire structure, including the bead areas;
	(h)	except a tire designed for recutting and marked by the 
manufacturer as being so designed, a tire must not have been 
regrooved or recut below the original new tire groove depth;
	(i)	a tire must not be of a smaller size than is marked on the 
vehicle placard or oversized so that it contacts the bus body 
structure;
	(j)	a bus must not be fitted with both radial ply and bias ply tires 
unless it is in accordance with the tire manufacturer's 
specifications;
	(k)	dual tires must not
	(i)	be in contact with each other, or
	(ii)	differ from each other by more than 13 millimetres in 
diameter or by more than 38 millimetres in 
circumference;
	(l)	a tire must have the correct air pressure;
	(m)	the load capacity of the tires must be equal to or greater than 
the gross vehicle weight rating limit of the bus;
	(n)	every tire valve and valve stem must
	(i)	function in accordance with the manufacturer's 
specifications, and
	(ii)	not be worn or damaged;
	(o)	a recap tire must not be used on a front wheel;
	(p)	a commercial bus must not be fitted with both sixty and fifty 
series tires;
	(q)	a commercial bus must not be fitted with a combination of 
construction types or sizes on an axle unless that combination 
is stated to be equivalent by tire industry standards;
	(r)	a commercial bus must not be fitted with a tire that
	(i)	bears the wording "not for highway use", "farm use 
only", "competition circuit use only" or any other 
wording or lettering indicating that the tire was not 
designed for highway use, or
	(ii)	bears the letters "SL", "NHS" or "TG" after the tire 
designation.
Part 7 
Lubrication
Lubrication
30(1)  The lubrication of a commercial bus must comply with the 
standards set out in subsection (2).
(2)  The standards to be met for the lubrication of a commercial bus are 
as follows:
	(a)	the bus must be lubricated in accordance with the 
maintenance program for that bus required under section 7 of 
this Regulation;
	(b)	the bus must not have excessive oil or grease leaks.
Part 8 
Cleanliness, Safety and 
Emergency Equipment
Cleanliness
31(1)  The bus must comply with the standards for cleanliness set out 
in subsection (2).
(2)  The cleanliness standards to be met are as follows:
	(a)	the interior, exterior, windows and engine of the bus must be 
clean;
	(b)	the tool storage area must be in order;
	(c)	there must not be loose items in the interior of the bus.
Fire fighting equipment
32(1)  The fire fighting equipment on the bus must comply with the 
standards set out in subsection (2).
(2)  The standards to be met for fire fighting equipment are as follows:
	(a)	if the vehicle is equipped with a fire axe,
	(i)	the fire axe must be securely attached to the bus so that 
it is
	(A)	readily available to the driver, and
	(B)	not an obstruction to occupants of the bus,
			and
	(ii)	the fire axe attachment bracket must be securely 
mounted;
	(b)	a fire extinguisher must be securely mounted in a suitable 
bracket in the forward end of the bus so that it is easily 
accessible to the driver or near the entrance door;
	(c)	the fire extinguisher must meet the requirements set out in 
the Commercial Vehicle General Equipment and Safety 
Regulation (AR 435/86);
	(d)	the fire extinguisher must
	(i)	have a gauge to read the state of charge, and
	(ii)	have a charge that is in the designated zone for full 
charge;
	(e)	the date of service of the fire extinguisher must be inspected;
	(f)	at the time of the bus inspection, the fire extinguisher must be 
removed from its bracket, tipped upside down and shaken.
First aid kit
33   The bus must have a first aid kit that meets the requirements of 
section 16 of this Regulation.
Warning devices
34   The bus must be equipped with warning devices as required under 
the Commercial Vehicle General Equipment and Safety Regulation 
(AR 435/86).
Schedule 2 
 
Safety Systems Maintenance Inspection
 

Schedule 3 
 
First Aid Kit
1    4	bandage compresses 150 mm 
 6	bandage compresses 100 mm 
10	gauze pads 100 mm x 100 mm 
10	gauze pads 50 mm x 50 mm 
 1	gauze compress 
 2	conform gauze bandages 50 mm 
 2	crepe bandages 75 mm 
 3	crepe bandages 50 mm 
 6	triangular bandages 
50	adhesive dressings 
20	antiseptic swabs 
 2	adhesive tapes 25 mm x 5 m 
10	safety pins assorted 
 1	pair of scissors 
 1	pair of tweezers 
10	towellettes, pre-moistened 
 2	eye dressings, dry 
Tubular finger bandage and applicator 5 m.
2     Condensed version of St. John's Ambulance first aid manual.
3     Injury record book.
4     Inventory of kit contents.


--------------------------------
Alberta Regulation 214/2006
Provincial Parks Act
SECTION 7 DECLARATION AMENDMENT REGULATION
Filed: August 30, 2006
For information only:   Made by the Minister of Community Development 
(M.O. 19/2006) on July 26, 2006 pursuant to section 7 of the Provincial Parks Act. 
1   The Section 7 Declaration Regulation (AR 195/2001) is 
amended by this Regulation.

2   Section 2 is repealed and the following is substituted:
La Biche River
2   The Act, the Dispositions Regulations and the General 
Regulation apply to the land described in Schedule 1 as if it were a 
wildland provincial park.

3   Section 3(2) is repealed.

4   Section 4 is repealed and the following is substituted:
Lois Hole Centennial
4   The Act, the Dispositions Regulations and the General 
Regulation apply to the land described in Schedule 3 as if it were a 
provincial park.
Dunvegan West
5   The Act, the Dispositions Regulations and the General 
Regulation apply to the land described in Schedule 4 as if it were a 
wildland provincial park.
Expiry
6   For the purpose of ensuring that this Regulation is reviewed for 
ongoing relevancy and necessity, with the option that it may be 
repassed in its present or an amended form following a review, this 
Regulation expires on December 1, 2016.

5   The following is added after Schedule 2:
Schedule 3
All that parcel or tract of land, situate, lying and being in the 
fifty-third (53) township, in the twenty-fifth (25) range, west of the 
fourth (4) meridian, in the Province of Alberta, Canada, and being 
composed of:
		All that portion of the south east quarter of section 30 of the 
said township not covered by any of the waters of Big Lake, 
containing 20.033 hectares (49.50 acres), more or less.
Schedule 4
All those parcels or tracts of land, situate, lying and being in the 
eighty-third (83) township, in the twenty-second (22) range, west of 
the fifth (5) meridian, in the Province of Alberta, Canada, and being 
composed of:
		Legal subdivisions 12 and 13 and all those portions of legal 
subdivisions 11 and 14 lying generally to the west of the left 
bank of the Smoky River, all of section 1 of the said 
township, containing 42.494 hectares (105.00 acres), more or 
less.

THE ALBERTA GAZETTE, PART II, MONTH DAY, 2006


AR 	
- 891 -
THE ALBERTA GAZETTE, PART II, SEPTEMBER 15, 2006

- 890 -
THE ALBERTA GAZETTE, PART II, SEPTEMBER 15, 2006

- 891 -
THE ALBERTA GAZETTE, PART II, SEPTEMBER 15, 2006


AR 204/2006	SECURITIES
- 894 -
THE ALBERTA GAZETTE, PART II, SEPTEMBER 15, 2006


AR 205/2006	MINES AND MINERALS
- 901 -
THE ALBERTA GAZETTE, PART II, SEPTEMBER 15, 2006


AR 206/2006	MINES AND MINERALS
- 910 -
THE ALBERTA GAZETTE, PART II, SEPTEMBER 15, 2006

- 911 -
THE ALBERTA GAZETTE, PART II, SEPTEMBER 15, 2006


AR 207/2006	MINES AND MINERALS
- 918 -
THE ALBERTA GAZETTE, PART II, SEPTEMBER 15, 2006


AR 208/2006	MINES AND MINERALS
- 935 -
THE ALBERTA GAZETTE, PART II, SEPTEMBER 15, 2006


AR 209/2006	SAFETY CODES
- 936 -
THE ALBERTA GAZETTE, PART II, SEPTEMBER 15, 2006


AR 210/2006	MUNICIPAL GOVERNMENT
- 939 -
THE ALBERTA GAZETTE, PART II, SEPTEMBER 15, 2006


AR 211/2006	TRAFFIC SAFETY
- 1068 -
THE ALBERTA GAZETTE, PART II, SEPTEMBER 15, 2006

THE ALBERTA GAZETTE, PART II, SEPTEMBER 15, 2006


AR 212/2006	TRAFFIC SAFETY
THE ALBERTA GAZETTE, PART II, SEPTEMBER 15, 2006


AR 213/2006	TRAFFIC SAFETY
THE ALBERTA GAZETTE, PART II, SEPTEMBER 15, 2006


AR 214/2006	PROVINCIAL PARKS