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     Alberta Regulation 176/2000

     Wildlife Act

     WILDLIFE AMENDMENT REGULATION

     Filed:  August 21, 2000

Made by the Minister of Environment (M.O. 54/2000) on August 8, 2000
pursuant to sections 15, 25 and 96 of the Wildlife Act.


1   The Wildlife Regulation (AR 143/97) is amended by this Regulation.


2   Section 3 is amended 

     (a)  by adding the following after clause (ii):

               (ii.1)    "partner special licence" or "partner
licence" means a special licence, relating to a specific kind of big game
animal, that is held or to be held pursuant to a designation under section
30(2.1); 

          (ii.2)    "principal special licence" or "principal licence"
means a resident special licence whose holder has been given the
opportunity to designate, and has designated or is to designate, a person
in accordance with section 30(2.1);

     (b)  by repealing clause (oo) and substituting the following:

               (oo) "resident", used with reference to a licence or a
particular kind of licence, refers to a licence, or a licence of that kind,
that only a resident is eligible to obtain or hold;


3   Section 29 is amended by adding the following after subsection (1):

     (1.1)  A person is eligible to obtain or hold a partner special
licence if and only if he

          (a)  meets the requirements of subsection (1),

          (b)  is a resident, and

          (c)  has been designated, with respect to a principal special
licence, under section 30(2.1).


4   Section 30 is amended 

     (a)  by adding the following after subsection (2):


     (2.1)  The Minister may give the holder of a resident special licence
that authorizes its holder to hunt a big game animal the opportunity to
designate a person who is eligible under section 29(1.1), to obtain and
hold a special licence (being a partner special licence) and, where that
opportunity has been given and is taken, then, for the purposes of this
Regulation, the 2 licences are associated with each other.

     (2.2)  Only one person may be designated to obtain and hold a partner
special licence in association with any one principal special licence.

     (2.3)  Subject to this section, a partner special licence authorizes
and only authorizes its holder to hunt a single big game animal of a kind
specified in the title of that licence,

               (a)  during

                         (i)  the open season in which the associated
principal special licence holder is entitled to hunt the same kind of
animal under the associated principal licence, and

                         (ii) a period when that principal licence
holder is actively hunting for the same kind of big game animal in the same
area as the holder of the partner licence,

               (b)  in the area specified in the partner licence, which
is to be the same as the area specified in the associated principal
licence, and

               (c)  in circumstances where the two hunters are within
sufficiently close proximity to each other that they can effectively advise
and assist each other without the benefit of any radio, telephone or other
similar device for electronic communication.

     (2.4)  A principal special licence or a partner special licence is no
longer valid to authorize hunting if the holder of the associated licence
has killed an animal under the authority of that associated licence.  

     (b)  in subsection (17) 

               (i)  by striking out "202,";

               (ii) by striking out "230, 238 to 242" and substituting
"228";

               (iii)     by adding "337, 338," after "334,".


5   Section 98 is amended

     (a)  by adding the following after subsection (1):

     (1.1)  A person who holds a principal or a partner special licence
and who kills an animal under the authority of that licence shall forthwith
ensure that the holder of the associated special licence is made aware of
that fact and, where the kill was made by the partner licence holder, the
principal licence holder shall, immediately on being so notified, go to the
location of the carcass and, immediately on arriving there, affix the tag
issued with the principal licence to the carcass in the same manner as is
set out in subsection (1)(b).   

     (b)  by adding the following after  subsection (6):

     (6.1)  A person who possesses the carcass of a moose killed under the
authority of a calf moose special licence and to which a tag has been
affixed in accordance with subsection (1)(b) shall retain, with the
carcass, the complete head until the carcass has been delivered to the
usual place of residence of the individual who killed the animal and is
butchered, cut up and packaged for consumption, or to premises described in
subsection (3)(c)(ii).    


6   Section 130 is amended by adding the following after subsection (2):

     (2.1)  A person who kills a wolf in any of WMUs 300 to 316 or 400 to
414 shall personally submit a report to the Service within 30 days after
the date on which the wolf was killed.


7   Section 139 is amended by striking out "440" and substituting "400". 


8   Schedule 8 is amended in Part 1 by adding the following after item 41:

     41.1   Resident partner special licence        4.00


9   Schedule 9 is amended in Part 1

     (a)  by repealing item 16 and substituting the following:

          16   Majorville Wildlife Management Unit (138)

               Commencing where secondary road 842 crosses the Bow
River, near Cluny; thence downstream along the right bank of the Bow River
to the Crowfoot Ferry Road approximately 7 miles west of Bassano; thence
northerly along the Crowfoot Ferry Road to highway 1 (TransCanada); thence
southeasterly along highway 1 (TransCanada) to highway 36; thence southerly
along highway 36 to secondary road 539; thence westerly and southerly along
secondary road 539 across the Bow River; thence continuing westerly
approximately 8 miles; thence southerly approximately 6 miles along a
gravel road; thence westerly along another gravel road to the C.P.R.
right-of-way; thence northwesterly along the C.P.R. right-of-way to
secondary road 531 near Lomond; thence westerly on secondary road 531 to
secondary road 842; thence northerly along secondary road 842 to secondary
road 534; thence westerly on secondary road 534 approximately 2 miles to
secondary road 842; thence northerly on secondary road 842 to secondary
road 542; thence easterly on secondary road 542 approximately 4 miles to
secondary road 842; thence northerly on secondary road 842 to the point of
commencement.

     (b)  by repealing items 18 and 19 and substituting the following:

          18   Newell Wildlife Management Unit (142)

               Commencing at the junction of secondary road 550 and
highway 1 (TransCanada) near Bassano; thence easterly along secondary road
550 to highway 36; thence southerly on highway 36 to the junction of
highway 36 and secondary road 544; thence easterly on secondary road 544 to
the junction of secondary road 544 and secondary road 876; thence southerly
on secondary road 876 to secondary road 535; thence westerly along
secondary road 535 to secondary road 875; thence southerly along secondary
road 875 to secondary road 530; thence westerly along secondary road 530 to
highway 36; thence northerly along highway 36 to the junction of highway 36
and highway 1 (TransCanada) near Brooks; thence westerly along highway 1
(TransCanada) to the point of commencement.



          19   Tilley Wildlife Management Unit (144)

               Commencing at the junction of highway 1 (TransCanada) and
secondary road 884 near Suffield townsite; thence southerly along secondary
road 884 to secondary road 524; thence westerly along secondary road 524 to
secondary road 525; thence northwesterly along secondary road 525 to
secondary road 875; thence northerly along secondary road 875 to secondary
road 535; thence easterly along secondary road 535 to secondary road 876;
thence northerly along secondary road 876 to secondary road 544; thence
easterly along secondary road 544 to secondary road 884; thence southerly
along secondary road 884 to the boundary of  the Suffield Military Reserve;
thence southerly along the western boundary of the Suffield Military
Reserve to the northwest corner of section 3, township 15, range 9, west of
the fourth meridian; thence southerly along secondary road 884 to highway 1
(TransCanada); thence southeasterly along highway 1 (TransCanada) to the
point of commencement.

     (c)  by repealing items 21, 22 and 23 and substituting the
following:


          21   Jenner Wildlife Management Unit (150)

               Commencing at the junction of secondary road 884 and
secondary road 555 near Jenner; thence easterly along secondary road 555 to
highway 41; thence northerly along highway 41 to the Red Deer River; thence
easterly along the right bank of the Red Deer River to the
Alberta-Saskatchewan boundary; thence southerly along the
Alberta-Saskatchewan boundary to the Hilda road between townships 17 and
18; thence westerly along the Hilda road and continuing westerly between
townships 17 and 18 to the eastern boundary of the Suffield Military
Reserve; thence northerly, westerly and southwesterly along the eastern,
northern and western boundaries of the Suffield Military reserve to a point
where the boundary meets secondary road 884 approximately 13 miles south of
Jenner; thence northerly along secondary road 884 to the point of
commencement.


          22   Alkali Creek Wildlife Management Unit (151)

               Commencing at the junction of secondary roads 884 and old
secondary road 565 near Big Stone; thence easterly along old secondary road
565 to secondary road 886; thence northerly along secondary road 886 4
miles; thence directly east on gravel road to old secondary road 565 and
continuing easterly along old secondary road 565 to highway 41; thence
northerly along highway 41 to secondary road 570; thence easterly along
secondary road 570 to the Alberta-Saskatchewan boundary; thence southerly
along the Alberta-Saskatchewan boundary to the right bank of the Red Deer
River; thence westerly along the Red Deer River to highway 41; thence
southerly along highway 41 to secondary road 555; thence westerly along
secondary road 555 to secondary road 884; thence northerly along secondary
road 884 to the point of commencement.

          23   Royal Wildlife Management Unit (152)

               Commencing at the junction of secondary roads 884 and 544
approximately 6 miles south of Jenner; thence westerly along secondary road
544 to highway 36; thence northerly along highway 36 to secondary highway
550; thence westerly along secondary highway 550 to highway 1
(TransCanada); thence westerly along highway 1 to highway 56; thence
northerly along highway 56 to secondary road 561 near Hussar; thence
easterly along secondary road 561 to secondary road 862; thence northerly
along secondary road 862 to old secondary road 565 near Finnegan; thence
easterly along old secondary road 565 to highway 36; thence southerly on
highway 36 approximately 2 miles to old secondary road 565; thence
continuing easterly on old secondary road 565 to secondary road 884; thence
southerly on secondary road 884 to the point of commencement.


10   Schedule 10 is amended in Part 3

     (a)  by repealing item 7 and substituting the following:

     7   Cougar Management Area 7: WMUs 314, 316, 318 and 320.

     7.1   Cougar Management Area 7A:   WMUs 412, 414, 416, 417 and 418.

     (b)  by repealing item 9 and substituting the following:

     9    Cougar Management Area 9:     WMUs 420, 422, 428 and 430.

     9.1  Cougar Management Area 9A:    WMUs 426, 432 and 434.

     (c)  by repealing item 11 and substituting the following:

     11   Cougar Management Area 11:    WMUs 337, 338, 339, 340, 342, 344
and 352.

     11.1   Cougar Management Area 11A: WMUs 346, 347, 348, 349, 350,
505, 507 and 510.


11   Schedule 12 is amended in Part 2 

     (a)  in item 3 by striking out "SE 21-72-12-W6" and substituting "NE
29-16-18-W4";

     (b)  by repealing items 4, 17, 22 and 26.  


12   Schedule 15 is amended

     (a)  in section 5

               (i)  in clause (m) by striking out "September 8 to
September 25" and substituting "September 6 to September 23";

               (ii) in clause (o) by striking out "November 25 to
November 27" and substituting "November 23 to November 25";

     (b)  in section 7(3) by repealing clauses (h), (i), (j), (k) and (l)
and substituting the following:

                         (h)  in Cougar Management Area 7, 7 female
cougar or 14 cougar,

                         (i)  in Cougar Management Area 7A, 4 female
cougar or 8 cougar,

                         (j)  in Cougar Management Area 8, 11 female
cougar or 22 cougar,

                         (k)  in Cougar Management Area 9, 2 female
cougar or 5 cougar,

                         (l)  in Cougar Management Area 9A, 2 female
cougar or 3 cougar,

                         (m)  in Cougar Management Area 10, 2 female
cougar or 4 cougar,

                         (n)  in Cougar Management Area 11, 2 female
cougar or 4 cougar, and

                         (o)  in Cougar Management Area 11A, 2 female
cougar or 4 cougar,

     (c)  in section 8(2)(c) by striking out "December 12" and
substituting "December 10";

     (d)  in section 10(6) by striking out "September 4 to September 6"
and substituting "September 2 to September 4";

     (e)  by repealing Tables 1, 2, 3 and 4 and substituting the
following:


     SCHEDULE 15


     TABLE 1

     BIG GAME SEASONS



WMU
SEASON     GROUP



GENERAL
SEASONS
ARCHERY ONLY
SEASONS


102,104,106
G24
A18


108
G24
A38


110,112,116,118,119,124
G24
A18


128,130
G24
A38


132,134,136,138,140,142,144,148,150,151,152

G24

A18


156,158,160
G27
A19


162
G24
A18


163,164
G27
A19


166
G32
A22


200,202,203
G4
A26


204,206,208
G25
A22


210
G27
A19


212
N/A
A34


214
G10
A32


216
G31
A41


220,221,222
G25
A22


224
G31
A41


226,228,230,232
G25
A22


234
G34
A10


236,238,240,242,244,246
G25
A22


248
N/A
A35


250
G26
A39


252,254,256,258 
G25
A22


260
G30
A23


300
G22
A16


302
G41
A17


303
G21
A17


304,305
G23
A17


306,308
G21
A17


310
G20
A15


312,314
G49
A15


316
G37
A24


318,320
G35
A28


322,324
G31
A28


326
G48
A7


328
G13
A9


330
G11
A8


332
G31
A28


334,336
G31
A41


337
G31
A28


338
G36
A29


339
G3
A9


340,342
G9
A8


344
G12
A9


346
G9
A8


347
G12
A9


348
G31
A28



349,350
G12
A9


351
G7
A6


352
G12
A9


353,354
G2
A4


355,356
G5
A2


357,358
G44
A3


359
G45
A40


360
G50
A2


400
G47
A14


402
G19
A14


404,406
G17
A12


408
G18
A13


410
N/A
A34


412,414
G15
A11


416
G51
A11


417
G46
A11


418
G28
A21


420,422
G51
A11


426
G14
A11


428
G51
A11


429
G8
A7


430
G51
A11


432
G15
A11


434,436
G14
A11


437
G16
A11


438,439
G14
A11


440,441,442,444,445,446
G15
A11


500
G30
A31


501
G33
A20


502
G26
A37


503,504
G42
A33


505
G38
A25


506
G26
A37


507
G31
A28


508
G25
A22


509
G34
A30


510
G40
A27


511,512,514,515,516
G29
A1


517,518
G1
A1


519,520
G29
A1


521,522,523
G44
A3


524,525
G29
A1


526
G39
A42


527
G44
A3


528
G29
A1


529,530,531,532,534
G1
A1


535
G6
A5


536
G29
A1


537
G6
A5


539,540,542
G1
A1


544
G29
A1


841
G43
A36



    






     TABLE 2

     GENERAL SEASONS



SEASON
GROUP #
WHITE-TAILED DEER
MULE DEER
MOOSE
ELK
BLACK BEAR
TROPHY SHEEP



Antlered
Antlerless
Antlered
Antlerless
Antlered
Antlerless
Antlered
Antlerless
Fall
Spring
Resident
NR - NRA


G1
S1-N30
N1-N30
S1-N30
Closed
S1-O311
N1-N30
Closed
Closed
Closed
S1-N30
Ap17-Ju15
Closed
Closed


G2
S17- N30
N1-N15
S17-N30
Closed
S24-O311
N1-N301
S24-N301,5
S17-N304
S17-N301
S6-N30
Ap17-Ju15
Closed
Closed


G3
S17-N30
N1-N15
S17-N30
Closed
S24-O311
N1-N301
Closed
S17-N304
Closed
S17-N30
Ap1-Ma31
Closed
Closed


G4
N1-N30
N1-N30
N1-N301
N1-N301
N1-N301
N1-N301
Closed
N1-D151
S6-N30
Ap1-Ma31
Closed
Closed


G5
S17-N30
N1-N15
S17-N30
Closed
S24-O311
N1-N301
Closed
S17-N304
S17-N301
S6-N30
Ap17-Ju15
Closed
Closed


G6
S17-N30
N1-N7
S17-N30
Closed
S24-O311
N1-N301
Closed
Closed
Closed
S6-N30
Ap17-Ju15
Closed
Closed


G7
S17-N30
N1-N15
S17-N30
Closed
S24-O311
N1-N301
Closed
S17-N304
Closed
S6-N30
Ap17-Ju15
Closed
Closed


G8
S17-N30
N1-N15
S17-N30
S17-N301
S24-O311
N1-N301
Closed
S17-N304
Closed
S17-N30
Ap1-Ma31
A25-O317
Closed





    

     TABLE 2

     GENERAL SEASONS (continued)




SEASON GROUP #
WHITE-TAILED DEER
     MULE DEER
     MOOSE
     ELK
     BLACK BEAR
     TROPHY SHEEP



Antlered
Antlerless
Antlered
Antlerless
Antlered
Antlerless
Antlered
Antlerless
     Fall
     Spring
Resident
NR -NRA


G9
S17-N30
N1-N15
S17-N30
Closed
S24-O311
N1-N301
Closed
S17-N304
S17-D151
S17-N30
Ap1-Ma31
Closed
Closed


G10
N1-N30
N1-N30
N1-N301
N1-N301
N1-N301
N1-N301
O25-N304
N1-D151
S6-N30
Ap1-Ma31
Closed
Closed


G11
S17-N30
N1-N15
S17-N30
Closed
S24-O311
N1-N301
Closed
S17-N304
S17-N301
S17-N30
Ap1-Ma31
Closed
Closed


G12
S17-N30
N1-N15
S17-N30
Closed
S24-O311
N1-N301
Closed
S17-N304
Closed
S17-N30
Ap1-Ma31
Closed
Closed


G13
S17-N30
N1-N15
S17-N30
Closed
S24-O311
N1-N301
Closed
S17-N304
Closed
S17-N30
Ap1-Ma31
A25-O317
Closed


G14
S24-N30
N1-N30
S24-N301
Closed
S24-O311
Closed
S17-N303
Closed
S6-N30
Ap17-Ju15
A25-O31
S1-O15


G15
S24-N30
N1-N30
S24-N30
Closed
S24-O311
Closed
S17-N303
Closed
S6-N30
Ap17-Ju15
A25-O31
S1-O15


G16
S24-N30
N1-N30
S24-N301
Closed
S24-O311
Closed
S17-N303
Closed
S6-N30
Ap17-Ju15
A25-S231,7
S24-O311,7
Closed


G17
S24-N301
S24-N301
S24-N301
S24-N301
S24-N301
S24-N301
S17-N301,3
S17-N301
S6-N30
Ap1-Ma15
S6-O31
Closed


G18
S24-N301
S24-N301
S24-N301
S24-N301
S24-N301
Closed
S17-N301,3
S17-N301
S6-N30
Ap1-Ma15
S6-O31
Closed


G19
S24-N30
N1-N15
S24-N301
S24-N301
S24-N301
Closed
S17-N304
S17-N301
S6-N30
Ap1-Ma15
S6-O31
Closed


G20
N1-N30
N1-N30
N1-N301
N1-N301
N1-N301
N1-N301
O25-N304
O25-D151
S24-N30
Ap1-Ma15
Closed
Closed


    






     TABLE 2

     GENERAL SEASONS (continued)


SEASON GROUP #
     WHITE-TAILED DEER
     MULE DEER
     MOOSE
     ELK
     BLACK BEAR
     TROPHY SHEEP



Antlered
Antlerless
Antlered
Antlerless
Antlered
Antlerless
Antlered
Antlerless
     Fall
     Spring
Resident
NR - NRA


G21
N1-N30
N1-N30
N1-N301
N1-N301
N1-N301
Closed
O25-N304
O25-D151
S24-N30
Ap1-Ma15
S6-O31 
Closed


G22
N1-N30
N1-N30
N1-N301
N1-N301
N1-N301
Closed
Closed
Closed
S24-N30
Ap1-Ma15
Closed
Closed


G23
N1-N30
N1-N30
N1-N301
N1-N301
N1-N301
Closed
O25-N304
O25-D151
S24-N30
Ap1-Ma15
Closed
Closed


G24
N2-N256
N2-N251,6
N2-N251,6
N2-N251,6
Closed
Closed
Closed
Closed
Closed
Closed
Closed
Closed


G25
N1-N30
N1-N30
N1-N301
N1-N301
N1-N301
N1-N301
Closed
Closed
S6-N30
Ap1-Ma31
Closed
Closed


G26
N1-N30
N1-N30
N1-N301
Closed
N1-N301
N1-N301
Closed
Closed
S6-N30
Ap1-Ma31
Closed
Closed


G27
N2-N256
N2-N251,6
N2-N251,6
N2-N251,6
N1-N301
N1-N301
Closed
Closed
Closed
Closed
Closed
Closed


G28
S24-N30
N1-N30
S24-N301
Closed
S24-O311
Closed
S17-N301,3
S17-N301
S6-N30
Ap17-Ju15
A25-O31
S1-O15


G29
S1-N30
N1-N30
S1-N30
Closed
S1-O311
N1-N301
Closed
Closed
Closed
S1-N30
Ap17-Ju15
Closed
Closed


G30
N1-N30
N1-N30
N1-N301
N1-N301
N1-N301
Closed
Closed
Closed
S6-N30
Ap1-Ma31
Closed
Closed


    





     TABLE 2

     GENERAL SEASONS (continued)


SEASON GROUP
#
     WHITE-TAILED DEER
     MULE DEER
     MOOSE
     ELK
     BLACK BEAR
     TROPHY SHEEP



Antlered
Antlerless
Antlered
Antlerless
Antlered
Antlerless
Antlered
Antlerless
     Fall
     Spring
Resident
NR - NRA


G31
N1-N30
N1-N30
N1-N301
N1-N301
N1-N301
N1-N301
N1-N304
N1-D151
S6-N30
Ap1-Ma31
Closed
Closed


G32
N1-N30
N1-N301
N1-N301
N1-N301
N1-N301
N1-N301
Closed
Closed
Closed
Closed
Closed
Closed


G33
N1-N30
N1-N30
N1-N301
Closed
Closed
Closed
Closed
Closed
S6-N30
Ap1-Ma31
Closed
Closed


G34
N1-N30
N1-N30
N1-N301
N1-N301
N1-N301
N1-N301
N1-N301,3
N1-D151
S6-N30
Ap1-Ma31
Closed
Closed


G35
N1-N30
N1-N7 
N1-N301
N1-N301
N1-N301
N1-N301
N1-N304
N1-D151
S6-N30
Ap1-Ma31
Closed
Closed


G36
N1-N30
N1-N30
N1-N301
Closed
N1-N301
N1-N301
N1-N304
N1-D151
S6-N30
Ap1-Ma31
Closed
Closed


G37
S24-N30
N1-N30
S24-N30
Closed
N1-N301
N1-N301
N1-N304
Closed
S6-N30
Ap1-Ma31
Closed
Closed


G38
N1-N30
N1-N30
N1-N301
N1-N301
N1-N301
N1-N301,5
Closed
Closed
S6-N30
Ap1-Ma31
Closed
Closed


G39
S17-N30
N1-N7
S17-N301
S17-N301
S24-O311
N1-N301
Closed
Closed
S17-D151
S6-N30
Ap17-Ju15
Closed
Closed


G40
N1-N30
N1-N30
N1-N301
N1-N301
N1-N301
N1-N301,5
N1-N304
N1-D151
S6-N30
Ap1-Ma31
Closed
Closed


G41
N1-N30
N1-N30
N1-N301
N1-N301
N1-N301
Closed
O25-N304
O25-D151
S24-N30
Ap1-Ma15
S6-O317
Closed


G42
N1-N30
N1-N30
N1-N301
Closed
N1-N301
Closed
Closed
Closed
S6-N30
Ap1- Ma31
Closed
Closed


G43
S17-N30
N1-N30
S17-N30
Closed
S17-O311 N1-N301
Closed
Closed
Closed
S17-N30
Ap1-Ma15
Closed
Closed


    





     TABLE 2

     GENERAL SEASONS (continued)



SEASON GROUP
#
     WHITE-TAILED DEER
     MULE DEER
     MOOSE
     ELK
     BLACK BEAR
     TROPHY SHEEP



Antlered
Antlerless
Antlered
Antlerless
Antlered
Antlerless
Antlered
Antlerless
     Fall
     Spring
Resident
NR-NRA 


G44
S17-N30
N1-N7
S17-N301
S17-N301
S24-O311
N1-N301
Closed
S17-N304
S17-D151
S6-N30
Ap17-Ju15
Closed
Closed


G45
S17-N30
N1-N7
S17-N301
S17-N301
S24-O311
N1-N301
S24-N301,5
S17-N304
S17-D151
S6-N30
Ap17-Ju15
Closed
Closed


G46
S24-N30
N1-N30
S24-N30
Closed
S24-O311
Closed
S17-N301,3
Closed
S6-N30
Ap17-Ju15
A25-O31
S1-O15


G47
S24-N30
N1-N15
S24-N301
S24-N301
S24-N301
Closed
S17-N304
S17-N301
S6-N30
Ap1-Ma15
S6-O317
Closed


G48
S17-N30
N1-N15
S17-N30
S17-N301
S24-O311
N1-N301
Closed
S17-N304
Closed
S17-N30
Ap1-Ma31
A25-O31
Closed


G49
N1-N30
N1-N30
N1-N301
N1-N301   
N1-N301
N1-N301
O25-N304
N1-D151
S24-N30
Ap1-Ma15
Closed
Closed


G50
S17-N30
N1-N7
S17-N301
Closed
S24-O311
N1-N301
Closed
S17-N304
S17-D151
S6-N30
Ap17-Ju15
Closed
Closed


G51
S24-N30
N1-N30
S24-N301
Closed
S24-O311
Closed
S17-N301,3
Closed
S6-N30
Ap17-Ju15
A25-O31
S1-O15


    







     TABLE 3

     ARCHERY ONLY SEASONS


SEASON GROUP #
WHITE-TAILED DEER
MULE DEER
MOOSE
ELK
BLACK BEAR



Antlered
Antlerless
Antlered
Antlerless
Antlered
Antlerless
Antlered
Antlerless
Fall
Spring


A1
A25-A31
A25-A31
A25-A31
Closed
A25-A31
Closed
Closed
Closed
A25-A31
Closed


A2
A25-S16
A25-S16
A25-S16
Closed
A25-S23
Closed
A25-S164
A25-S16
A25-S5
Closed


A3
A25-S16
A25-S16
A25-S16
A25-S16
A25-S23
Closed
A25-S164
A25-S16
A25-S5
Closed


A4
A25-S16
A25-S16
A25-S16
Closed
A25-S23
A25-S235
A25-S164
A25-S16
A25-S5
Closed


A5
A25-S16
A25-S16
A25-S16
Closed
A25-S23
Closed
Closed
Closed
A25-S5
Closed


A6
A25-S16
A25-S16
A25-S16
Closed
A25-S23
Closed
A25-S164
Closed
A25-S5
Closed


A7
A25-S16
A25-S16
A25-S16
A25-S16
A25-S23
Closed
A25-S164
Closed
A25-S16
Closed


A8
A25-S16
A25-S16
A25-S16
Closed
A25-S23
Closed
A25-S164
A25-S16
A25-S16
Closed


A9
A25-S16
A25-S16
A25-S16
Closed
A25-S23
Closed
A25-S164
Closed
A25-S16
Closed


A10
S6-O31
S6-O31
S6-O31
S6-O31
S6-0311
S6-0311
S6-0313
S6-031
Closed
Closed


A11
A25-S23
A25-S23
A25-S23
Closed
A25-S23
Closed
A25-S163
Closed
A25-S5
Closed


    




     TABLE 3

     ARCHERY ONLY SEASONS (continued)



SEASON GROUP #

     WHITE-TAILED DEER
     MULE DEER
     MOOSE
     ELK
     BLACK BEAR



Antlered
Antlerless
Antlered
Antlerless
Antlered
Antlerless
Antlered
Antlerless
Fall
Spring


A12
S6-S23
S6-S23    
S6-S23
S6-S23
S6-S23
S6-S23
S6-S163
S6-S16
Closed
Closed


A13
S6-S23
S6-S23
S6-S23
S6-S23
S6-S23
Closed
S6-S163
S6-S16
Closed
Closed


A14
S6-S23
S6-S23
S6-S23
S6-S23
S6-S231
Closed
S6-S164
S6-S16
Closed
Closed


A15
S6-O31
S6-O31
S6-O31
S6-O31
S6-O311
S6-O311
S6-O244
S6-O24
S6-S23
Closed


A16
S6-O31
S6-O31
S6-O31
S6-O31
S6-O311
Closed
Closed
Closed
S6-S23
Closed


A17
S6-O31
S6-O31
S6-O31
S6-O31
S6-O311
Closed
S6-O244
S6-O24
S6-S23
Closed


A18
S6-N1
S6-N1
S6-N1
S6-N1
Closed
Closed
Closed
Closed
Closed
Closed


A19
S6-N1
S6-N1
S6-N1
S6-N1
S6-O311
S6-O311
Closed
Closed
Closed
Closed


A20
S6-O31
S6-O31
S6-O31
Closed
Closed
Closed
Closed
Closed
Closed
Closed


A21
A25-S23
A25-S23
A25-S23
Closed
A25-S23
Closed
A25-S163
A25-S16
A25-S5
Closed


A22
S6-O31
S6-O31
S6-O31
S6-O31
S6-O311
S6-O311
Closed
Closed
Closed
Closed


A23
S6-O31
S6-O31
S6-O31
S6-O31
S6-O311
Closed
Closed
Closed
Closed
Closed


A24
A25-S23
A25-S23
A25-S23
Closed
S6-O31
S6-O31
S6-O314
Closed
Closed
Closed


    







     TABLE 3

     ARCHERY ONLY SEASONS (continued)



SEASON GROUP
 #
     WHITE-TAILED DEER
     MULE DEER
     MOOSE
     ELK
     BLACK BEAR



Antlered
Antlerless
Antlered
Antlerless
Antlered
Antlerless
Antlered
Antlerless
Fall
Spring


A25
S6-O31
S6-O31
S6-O31
S6-O31
S6-O31
S6-O315
Closed
Closed
Closed
Closed


A26
S6-O31
S6-O31
S6-O31
S6-O31
S6-O311
S6-O311
Closed
S6-O31
Closed
Closed


A27
S6-O31
S6-O31
S6-O31
S6-O31
S6-O31
S6-O315
S6-O314
S6-O31
Closed
Closed


A28
S6-O31
S6-O31
S6-O31
S6-O31
S6-O31
S6-O31
S6-O314
S6-O31
Closed
Closed


A29
S6-O31
S6-O31
S6-O31
Closed
S6-O31
S6-O31
S6-O314
S6-O31
Closed
Closed


A30
S6-O31
S6-O31
S6-O31
S6-O31
S6-O31
S6-O31
S6-O313
S6-O31
Closed
Closed


A31
S6-O31
S6-O31
S6-O31
S6-O31
S6-O31
Closed
Closed
Closed
Closed
Closed


A32
S6-O31
S6-O31
S6-O31
S6-O31
S6-O311
S6-O311
S6-O244
S6-O24
Closed
Closed


A33
S6-O31
S6-O31
S6-O31
Closed
S6-O31
Closed
Closed
Closed
Closed
Closed


A34
S6-N30
S6-N30
S6-N30
S6-N30
S6-N30
S6-N30
S6-N30
S6-N30
S6-N30
Ap1-Ma31




    




     TABLE 3

     ARCHERY ONLY SEASONS (continued)


SEASON GROUP
 #
     WHITE-TAILED DEER
     MULE DEER
     MOOSE
     ELK
     BLACK BEAR



Antlered
Antlerless
Antlered
Antlerless
Antlered
Antlerless
Antlered
Antlerless
  Fall
Spring


A35
S6-N30
S6-N30
S6-N30
S6-N30
S6-N30
S6-N30
S6-N30
S6-N30
Closed
Closed


A36
Closed
Closed
Closed
Closed
Closed
Closed
Closed
Closed
Closed
Closed


A37
S6-O31
S6-O31
S6-O31
Closed
S6-O31
S6-O31
Closed
Closed
Closed
Closed


A38
S6-N1
S6-N1
O1-N1
S6-N1
Closed
Closed
Closed
Closed
Closed
Closed


A39
S6-031
S6-031
S6-031
Closed
S6-0311
S6-0311
Closed
Closed
Closed
Closed


A40
A25-S16
A25-S16
A25-S16
A25-S16
A25-S23
A25-S235
A25-S164
A25-S16
A25-S5
Closed


A41
S6-031
S6-031
S6-O31
S6-O31
S6-O311
S6-0311
S6-0314
S6-O31
Closed
Closed


A42
A25-S16
A25-S16
A25-S16
A25-S16
A25-S23
Closed
Closed
A25-S16
A25-S5
Closed




    

     TABLE 4

     ADDITIONAL SEASONS


ITEM NO.
COLUMN I
BIG GAME
COLUMN II
LICENCE TYPE
COLUMN III
OPEN SEASON
COLUMN IV
LOCATION


1
Trophy sheep
WMU 410 Trophy Sheep Special Licence, or Non-resident / Non-resident Alien
Trophy Sheep Special Licence
S6-N30
WMU 410


2
Trophy sheep
Resident Trophy Sheep Licence
S6-O31
WMU 410


3
Non-trophy sheep
Non-trophy Sheep Special Licence
S6-O31
Big Game Zone 4 except non-trophy sheep hunting areas 412, 414, 418C, 422B,
426B, 428, 436, 438B, 439, 441 and 446


4
Non-trophy sheep
Non-trophy Sheep Special Licence
S9-O31
Big Game Zone 5 except non-trophy sheep hunting areas 404A and 404B. 
Non-trophy sheep hunting areas 402A, 402-303, 306 and 402-308


5
Non-trophy sheep
Non-trophy Sheep Special Licence
S6-N30
Non-trophy sheep hunting area 410


6
Trophy antelope
Trophy Antelope Special Licence
O16-O21
Antelope hunting areas A, B, C, D and F


7
Trophy antelope
Trophy Antelope Special Licence
S25-S30
Antelope hunting areas E, G and H


8
Trophy antelope
Antelope Archery Special Licence, or Non-resident or Non-resident Alien
Trophy Antelope Special Licence
S6-S23
Antelope hunting areas A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H 


    



     TABLE 4

     ADDITIONAL SEASONS (continued)




9
White-tailed deer and mule deer
Camp Wainwright Deer Special Licence
N23-N25, D4-D6, D7-D9
WMUs 728 and 730


10
White-tailed and Antlered mule deer
Camp Wainwright Deer Special Licence
N27-N29, N30-D2
WMUs 728 and 730


11
Antlerless mule deer and Antlerless white-tailed deer
Foothills Deer Licence
D4-D7, D11-D14
WMU 212


12
White-tailed deer
Strathcona White-tailed Deer Licence
Mondays, Tuesdays, Wednesdays, Thursdays and Fridays only from O25-D7
Those portions of WMU 248 within the County of Strathcona or within the
County of Leduc


13
White-tailed deer
White-tailed Deer Licence
O17-O31, N9-N30
WMU 936


14
Elk
Cypress Hills Elk Special Licence
Tuesdays, Wednesdays,  Thursdays and Fridays only from O10-D1
WMUs 116, 118, 119 and 624


15
Elk
Cypress Hills Elk Special Licence
Tuesdays, Wednesdays, Thursdays and Fridays only from D5-J12
WMUs 116, 118 and 119


    



     TABLE 4

     ADDITIONAL SEASONS (continued)



16
Elk
Cypress Hills Elk Archery Licence
S6-O9
WMUs 116, 118 and 119


17
Antlerless elk and Three point elk
WMU 300 Elk Special Licence, or Non-resident or Non-resident Alien Antlered
Elk Special Licence
S6-O24, O25-D24, D25-F21
WMU 300


18
Antlerless elk
WMU 212 Antlerless Elk Archery Licence
S6-N30
WMU 212


19
Elk
Antlered Elk Special Licence and Antlerless Elk Special Licence
S6-S23, S24-O8,
O9-O23
WMUs 102 and 104


20

Antlered elk

Antlered Elk Special Licence

O17-O31, 
N1-N23
WMU 936


21
Calf moose
 Calf Moose Special Licence
N23-N25, N27-D2, D4-D9
WMUs 728 and 730



22
Antlered Moose and Antlerless moose
Antlered Moose Special Licence, or Antlerless Moose Special Licence
N23-N25, N27-D2,
D4-D9
WMUs 728 and 730


23
Antlered moose and Antlerless moose
Antlered Moose Special Licence, or Antlerless Moose Special Licence
O17-O31, N1-N23
WMU 936


24
Antlered moose
Antlered Moose Special Licence
S17-O31, N1-N30
WMU 651


25
Grizzly bear
Grizzly Bear Special Licence
Ap1-Ma31
Big Game Zone 3 except WMU 330.
Big Game Zone 4 except WMUs 412 and 428.
WMUs 316, 318, 349, 351, 353, 354, 355, 356, 357, 524, 525, 527 and 537.


26
Grizzly bear
Grizzly Bear Special Licence
Ap1-Ma15
Big Game Zone 6.
WMUs 300, 302, 306 and 308.




     Alberta Regulation 177/2000

     Electric Utilities Act

     INDEPENDENT POWER AND SMALL POWER
     AMENDMENT REGULATION

     Filed:  August 23, 2000

Made by the Lieutenant Governor in Council (O.C. 314/2000) on August 23,
2000 pursuant to section 71 of the Electric Utilities Act.


1   The Independent Power and Small Power Regulation (AR 285/95) is amended
by this Regulation.


2   Section 1 is amended

     (a)  by adding the following after clause (a):

               (a.1)     "balancing pool" has the meaning given to it in the
Act;

               (a.2)     "balancing pool administrator" has the meaning
given to it in the Balancing Pool Regulation (AR 169/99); 

     (b)  by adding the following after clause (c):

               (c.1)     "public utility" has the meaning given to it in the
Small Power Research and Development Act;

               (c.2)     "small power interval meter" means a meter that

                         (i)  measures, at intervals of 15 minutes,
30 minutes and 60 minutes, the amount of electricity produced, and

                         (ii) satisfies the standards for revenue
collection set under the Electricity and Gas Inspection Act (Canada) and
the Weights and Measures Act (Canada);

               (c.3)     "small power producer" means a small power
producer, as defined in the Small Power Research and Development Act, that
is generating electricity;


3   Section 6 is amended by adding the following after subsection (2):

     (3)  This section is repealed on January 1, 2001.


4   The following is added after section 6:


Requirement to use small power interval meter
     6.1(1)  After December 31, 2000, each small power producer must use a
small power interval meter to measure the amount of electricity produced by
it.

     (2)  A small power producer that is not, when this section comes into
force, measuring its production of electricity by the use of a small power
interval meter must install such a meter before January 1, 2001.

     (3)  This section does not apply to a small power producer whose
small power production contract expires before January 1, 2001.


Payments to and from balancing pool
     6.2(1)  The balancing pool administrator must pay from the balancing
pool to a small power producer the reasonable costs of obtaining and
installing a small power interval meter if the small power producer

               (a)  obtained the approval of the balancing pool
administrator of the type and specifications of the small power interval
meter before installing it, and

               (b)  provides the balancing pool administrator with

                         (i)   invoices relating to those reasonable
costs, and

                         (ii) a notice in writing that the small
power interval meter has been installed and is being used.

     (2)  After December 31, 2000, the following amounts must be
calculated on an hourly basis and paid on a monthly basis:

               (a)  the balancing pool administrator must pay from the
balancing pool to a public utility the amount by which

                         (i)  the amount the public utility pays to a
small power producer for electricity generated under the capacity allocated
pursuant to the Small Power Research and Development Act, at a price equal
to the price described in section 3(1)(b) of that Act, 

                    exceeds

                         (ii) the amount the public utility receives
from the power pool for the electricity generated under the capacity
allocated pursuant to the Small Power Research and Development Act;

               (b)  a public utility must pay to the balancing pool
administrator for deposit in the balancing pool the amount by which

                         (i)  the amount the public utility receives
from the power pool for the electricity generated under the capacity
allocated pursuant to the Small Power Research and Development Act, 

                    exceeds

                         (ii) the amount the public utility pays to a
small power producer for electricity generated under the capacity allocated
pursuant to the Small Power Research and Development Act, at a price equal
to the price described in section 3(1)(b) of that Act.

     (3)  The balancing pool administrator must pay from the balancing
pool on a monthly basis the costs incurred by a public utility to
administer its small power production contracts where, in the opinion of
the balancing pool administrator, the costs are reasonable for the capacity
allocated under the Small Power Research and Development Act.

     (4)  The balancing pool administrator must pay from the balancing
pool the reasonable costs incurred by a small power producer as a result of
the coming into force of the Act, the regulations or amendments to the
regulations, including, but not limited to,

               (a)  costs of metering changes,

               (b)  costs associated with section 13(2) of the Act, and

               (c)  costs of any charges that may arise from system
access service or distribution access service

     to the extent that all such costs are related to the capacity
allocated under the Small Power Research and Development Act.

     (5)  Subsection (4) does not prevent the balancing pool administrator
from paying from the balancing pool a small power producer's costs

               (a)  that are reasonable in the circumstances in which
they were incurred and are appropriate for the capacity allocated under the
Small Power Research and Development Act,

               (b)  that have been approved by the Minister, and

               (c)  the payment of which is not required under
subsection (4).

     (6)  In the event there is a dispute with respect to any matter set
out in section 6.1 or this section, the matter must be determined by the
Minister.


     Alberta Regulation 178/2000

     Electric Utilities Act

     TIME EXTENSION AMENDMENT REGULATION

     Filed:  August 23, 2000

Made by the Lieutenant Governor in Council (O.C. 315/2000) on August 23,
2000 pursuant to section 71 of the Electric Utilities Act.


1   The Time Extension Regulation (AR 162/98) is amended by this
Regulation.


2   The following is added after section 2:

Extension of date in s72(4) of Act
     2.1(1)  The Minister is authorized to extend the date specified in
section 72(4) of the Electric Utilities Act.

     (2)  An order of the Minister under subsection (1) must not extend
the date beyond June 30, 2003.


     ------------------------------

     Alberta Regulation 179/2000

     Small Power Research and Development Act

     REVENUE ADJUSTMENT AMENDMENT REGULATION

     Filed:  August 23, 2000

Made by the Lieutenant Governor in Council (O.C. 316/2000) on August 23,
2000 pursuant to section 7 of the Small Power Research and Development Act.


1   The Revenue Adjustment Regulation (AR 358/94) is amended by this
Regulation.


2   Section 1 is amended by adding the following after clause (c):

     (c.1)     "balancing pool" has the meaning given to it in the Electric
Utilities Act;

     (c.2)     "balancing pool administrator" has the meaning given to it in
the Balancing Pool Regulation (AR 169/99);


3   Section 2(1) is repealed and the following is substituted:

Eligible power producer
     2(1)  Subject to subsection (2), a small power producer is eligible
to receive a revenue adjustment in respect of a taxation year if

               (a)  the Minister, before or during the taxation year,
made a final allocation of capacity in respect of the producer's eligible
power production facility, 

               (b)  income tax under the provincial tax Act or the
federal Act in respect of the taxation year was payable and paid in full by
the producer, and 

               (c)  the producer, in accordance with section 13,
reported to the Minister all provincial and federal assessments,
reassessments or additional assessments of income tax payable in respect of
prior taxation years during which the producer is a party to a small power
production contract.


4   Section 4(3) is amended by striking out "public utility" and
substituting "balancing pool administrator".


5   Section 5(2) is amended by striking out "public utility" and
substituting "balancing pool administrator".


6   Section 6 is amended

     (a)  by repealing subsection (1) and substituting the following:

Payment of revenue adjustment
     6(1)  The balancing pool administrator shall pay to a contracting
producer from the balancing pool a revenue adjustment for a taxation year
to which the contract applies, in accordance with the notice sent to the
balancing pool administrator by the Minister under section 5, not more than
30 days after it receives the notice.

     (b)  in subsection (2) by striking out "a public utility" and
substituting "the balancing pool administrator".


7   Section 7 is amended

     (a)  in subsection (1)

               (i)  by striking out "public utility" and substituting
"balancing pool administrator";

               (ii) by striking out "and providing estimates under
section 9";

     (b)  by repealing subsection (2) and substituting the following:

     (2)  When the balancing pool administrator makes a payment under
section 6 to the agent of a contracting producer, the balancing pool
administrator is deemed to have made that payment to the producer.


8   Section 9 is repealed.


9   Section 10 is amended

     (a)  in subsection (1)

               (i)  by repealing clause (d);

               (ii) in clause (e) by striking out "(d)" and
substituting "(c)";

     (b)  in subsection (2) by repealing clause (d).


10   Sections 2, 4, 5, 6, 7(a)(i) and (b) come into force on January 1,
2001.


     ------------------------------

     Alberta Regulation 180/2000

     Social Care Facilities Licensing Act

     DAY CARE REGULATION

     Filed:  August 23, 2000

Made by the Lieutenant Governor in Council (O.C. 318/2000) on August 23,
2000 pursuant to section 11 of the Social Care Facilities Licensing Act.


     Table of Contents

Definitions    1

     Part 1
     Licensing

Eligibility for licence  2
Contents of initial application    3
Renewal of application   4
Licensed capacity per facility     5

     Part 2
     Facilities and Their Operation

Accommodation  6
Net floor area 7
Furnishings and equipment     8
Outdoor play space  9
Child care program  10
Child guidance 11
Transportation to and from activities   12
Availability of telephone numbers  13
Accident or illness 14
Communicable disease     15
Supervised care for sick child     16
Medication     17
Health care    18
Smoking   19
Meals and snacks    20
Menus     21
Manner of feeding   22
Keeping of records  23
Portable emergency information record   24

     Part 3
     Staffing

Qualification certificates    25
Cancellation of certificate   26
Program director    27
Alternate program director    28
Primary staff members - day care centres     29
Ratios and maximum numbers - day care centres     30
Ratios - nursery schools 31
Ratios and maximum numbers - drop-in centres 32
Minimum staff requirements    33
Exemptions     34
General supervision requirement    35
First aid staffing  36

     Part 4
     Transitional Provisions, Repeals, Expiry and Coming into Force

Transitional provisions  37
Repeal    38
Expiry    39
Coming into force   40


Definitions
1(1)  In this Regulation,

     (a)  "Act" means the Social Care Facilities Licensing Act;

     (b)  "child" means a child who is under 7 years of age and who,
except in the case of an individual attending an early childhood services
program within the meaning of the School Act, is not a student within the
meaning of the School Act;

     (c)  "day care centre" means a facility that

               (i)  provides care, development and supervision for 7 or
more children for more than 3 but less than 24 consecutive hours in each
day that the facility is operating, and

               (ii) is intended to be operated for at least 12
consecutive weeks per year;

     (d)  "drop-in centre" means a facility that

               (i)  provides care and supervision for 7 or more
children

                         (A)  for more than 3 but less than 24
consecutive hours in each day that the facility is operating, and

                         (B)  for not more than 40 hours in any month
for any child,

               and

               (ii) is intended to be operated for at least 12
consecutive weeks per year;

     (e)  "licence" means a licence, including a conditional licence,
under the Act in respect of a day care facility;

     (f)  "licensed capacity" means, in relation to a day care facility, 
the maximum number of children that the licence permits to be accommodated
or cared for in the facility;

     (g)  "nursery school" means a facility that

               (i)  provides care, development and supervision for 7 or
more children for periods of 3 consecutive hours or less in any day, and

               (ii) is intended to be operated for at least 12
consecutive weeks per year;

     (h)  "parent" means, in relation to a child, the parent, guardian or
adult person who enrolled the child in the day care facility program;

     (i)  "primary staff member" means, subject to sections 30(5) and
33(2),  a staff member of a day care facility whose duty is child care and
who is actively engaged in the supervision, safety, well-being and
development of children;

     (j)  "program director" means a staff member of a day care centre
whose duty is to provide on-site supervision of the daily operation of the
day care centre;

     (k)  "qualification certificate" means a qualification certificate
issued under section 25.

(2)  For the purposes of the Act and this Regulation, "day care facility"
means, in addition to a day care centre, a nursery school and a drop-in
centre.


     PART 1

     LICENSING

Eligibility for licence
2   A licence may be obtained or held only by

     (a)  an individual who is an adult,

     (b)  a partnership, or

     (c)  a body corporate.


Contents of initial application
3(1)  An application for an initial licence must be in writing and include,
in addition to the particulars and the required fee,

     (a)  a service plan that demonstrates to the satisfaction of a
director the applicant's ability to provide a safe and effective child care
program, and a description of

               (i)  the proposed child care program, including the
child care philosophy on which the program will be based,

               (ii) the delivery of the child care program,

               (iii)     the nature and scope of parental involvement in the
child care program,

               (iv) staff positions, responsibilities and qualification
requirements,

               (v)  administrative policies and procedures, and

               (vi) utilization of the indoor space and the outdoor
play space of the day care facility, including furnishings and equipment,

     (b)  evidence of general liability insurance coverage for the staff
and children,

     (c)  evidence of municipal zoning approval,

     (d)  a satisfactory health inspection report from the regional
health authority in which the day care facility is to be located,

     (e)  evidence of compliance with all applicable regulations  under
the Safety Codes Act, and

     (f)  in the case of a day care centre, the names and qualification
certificate numbers of the program director and each primary staff member.

(2)  The fee for an initial licence is $35.


Renewal of application
4(1)  An application for renewal of a licence must be in writing and
include, in addition to the particulars and the required fee, notification
of any change in any of the information previously provided under section 3
or under this section.

(2)  The fee for a licence renewal is $25.


Licensed capacity per facility
5(1)  Subject to subsection (2), a director may not issue a licence
permitting a licensed capacity of more than 80.

(2)  Where a licence in force on November 30, 1990 permitted the operation
of a day care facility with a licensed capacity of more than 80, a director
may renew that licence and make further renewals of licences in respect of
that day care facility notwithstanding that the licensed capacity exceeds
80.


     PART 2

     FACILITIES AND THEIR OPERATION

Accommo-dation
6   A licence holder must ensure that

     (a)  in the case of a day care facility

               (i)  washrooms and washroom fixtures are conveniently
located and easily accessible to children, and

               (ii) each room used for child care purposes has a layout
that is conducive to effective supervision,

     and

     (b)  in the case of a day care centre and drop-in centre, there is
adequate space provided for administrative and staff needs.


Net floor area
7(1)  A licence holder must provide a net floor area of not less than

     (a)  3 square metres per child in the case of a day care centre, or

     (b)  2.5 square metres per child in the case of a nursery school and
drop-in centre.

(2)  For the purposes of subsection (1), the net floor area must be
calculated

     (a)  by measuring floor space that is appropriate for use by
children when playing, resting, sleeping and eating, and

     (b)  on the basis of licensed capacity.

(3)  Notwithstanding subsection (2), the net floor area of a day care
facility in respect of which a licence was in force on November 30, 1990
must be calculated by measuring usable floor space, including unencumbered
hallway space but not including the stairwells, kitchens, offices, staff
rooms, storage rooms or half of the washroom space.


Furnishings and equipment
8(1)  A licence holder must ensure that indoor and outdoor furnishings and
equipment, including play materials, are safe and maintained in good
repair, are developmentally appropriate and are of sufficient quantity and
variety for the number and ages of the children cared for in the day care
facility.

(2)  Each child under 13 months of age must be provided with a separate
crib that complies with the Cribs and Cradles Regulations (SOR/86-962) made
under the Hazardous Products Act (Canada).


Outdoor play space
9(1)  A licence holder for a day care centre must provide outdoor play
space that is adjacent to or within easy and safe walking distance of the
day care centre and accommodates at least 50% of the licensed capacity at a
level of not less than 2 square metres for each child under 19 months of
age and not less than 4.5 square metres for each child who is 19 months of
age or over.

(2)  Subject to subsection (3), the licence holder must ensure that

     (a)  the play space referred to in subsection (1) is securely
enclosed on all sides, and

     (b)  all entrances to and exits from the play space that do not lead
into the interior of the day care facility are kept closed at all times
while children are using the play space.

(3)  In the case of a day care centre located on public property, a
director may exempt a licence holder from any requirement of subsection (2)
if the licence holder satisfies the director that

     (a)  play space that meets the requirements of subsection (2) is not
reasonably available, and

     (b)  the children will be adequately supervised and protected in the
play space provided under subsection (1).


Child care program
10   A licence holder must

     (a)  provide a child care program that is in keeping with the
physical, social, intellectual, creative and emotional needs of the
children, and

     (b)  submit any proposed change in that program to a director for
approval before implementing the change.


Child guidance
11(1)  A licence holder must ensure that

     (a)  child guidance methods are communicated to a parent of each
child, and

     (b)  any child guidance action taken is reasonable in the
circumstances.

(2)  No person may use corporal punishment against a child under any
circumstances.


Transportation to and from activities
12   A licence holder must ensure that proposed supervision arrangements
respecting the transportation of a child to and from any activity off the
day care facility are approved in writing by a parent.


Availability of telephone numbers
13   A licence holder must ensure that the current telephone numbers of the
following are kept readily available in the day care facility:

     (a)  all staff members, including substitute staff members;

     (b)  the nearest health unit;

     (c)  the nearest hospital emergency centre and poison information
centre;

     (d)  the fire department;

     (e)  the police service;

     (f)  the ambulance service.


Accident or illness
14   In the case of an accident to or a serious illness of a child, the
licence holder must forthwith ensure that

     (a)  a parent is notified, and

     (b)  the child receives medical attention.


Communi-cable disease
15   Where a staff member of a day care facility knows or has reason to
believe that a child may be suffering from a disease listed in Schedule 1
of the Communicable Diseases Regulation (AR 238/85), the licence holder
must require a parent to remove the child from the day care facility
forthwith.


Supervised care for sick child
16   A licence holder must ensure that a sick child is

     (a)  kept as far away as is practicable from the other children, and

     (b)  directly supervised by a primary staff member,

until the child can be removed from the day care facility.


Medication
17(1)  A licence holder may administer or allow the administration of
patent or prescribed medication to a child only where

     (a)  the written consent of a parent has been obtained,

     (b)  the medication is in the original labelled container, and

     (c)  the medication is administered according to the labelled
directions.

(2)  A licence holder must ensure that

     (a)  all medication, except medication that may be needed in an
emergency to save a child's life, is stored in a locked container that is
inaccessible to children, and

     (b)  medication that may be needed in an emergency to save a child's
life is stored in a place that is inaccessible to children.


Health care
18   A licence holder may provide or allow for the provision of health care
to a child only

     (a)  if the written consent of a parent has been obtained,

     (b)  if the health care to be provided is first aid, or

     (c)  if, in the case of the administration of medicine, it is
administered in accordance with section 17.


Smoking
19(1)  No person shall smoke in a day care facility.

(2)  No staff member shall smoke at any time or place where the staff
member is caring for children.


Meals and snacks
20   A licence holder must

     (a)  provide or require parents to provide meals and snacks to the
children, and

     (b)  ensure that meals and snacks provided to the children

               (i)  are in accordance with Canada's Food Guide as
approved by the Canadian Council on Nutrition or in accordance with other
similar guidelines, and

               (ii) are provided at appropriate times and in sufficient
quantities in accordance with the needs of each child.


Menus
21   A licence holder must make available to staff and parents, in a form
and manner approved by a director, information on the food to be provided
by the licence holder.


Manner of feeding
22   A licence holder must ensure that the manner in which the children are
fed is appropriate to their age and level of development.


Keeping of records
23(1)  A licence holder must keep in the day care facility, in respect of
each child, up-to-date records that comply with subsection (2) and must
ensure that those records are available for inspection by a director at all
times and by the child's parent when practicable.

(2)  The records must include

     (a)  a current, signed and completed enrolment form,

     (b)  the name, date of birth, health care registration number and
current home address of the child,

     (c)  the name, current home address and telephone number of the
child's parent,

     (d)  the address and telephone number of the place where the child's
parent and another person to whom the child may be released can be reached
in case of an emergency,

     (e)  the name and telephone number of the child's physician,

     (f)  except in the case of a drop-in centre, the date when the child
became enrolled in the day care facility program and when the child ceased
to be enrolled in the day care facility program,

     (g)  particulars of the child's daily attendance, including arrival
and departure times, in a form that is satisfactory to a director,

     (h)  particulars of the administration of any medication pursuant to
section 17, including the kind of medication, the time of administration,
the amount administered, the initials of the person administering and the
written consent of a parent,

     (i)  particulars of any health care provided pursuant to section 18,
including the written consent of a parent, and

     (j)  written confirmation of the child's immunization and any other
health information provided by a parent.

(3)  In the case of a day care centre, the licence holder must also keep in
the day care centre up-to-date records available for inspection by a
director at all times that include

     (a)  particulars of the daily attendance of each primary staff
member, including arrival and departure times and hours spent providing
child care, in a form that is satisfactory to a director, and

     (b)  a copy of

               (i)  the qualification certificate of, or

               (ii) an exemption issued under section 34 in respect of,

          the program director and each primary staff member.

(4)  In the case of a drop-in centre, the licence holder must also keep in
the drop-in centre up-to-date records available for inspection by a
director at all times that include particulars of the daily attendance of
each primary staff member, including arrival and departure times and hours
spent providing child care, in a form that is satisfactory to a director.

(5)  The licence holder must retain the records required by this section
for

     (a)  as long as the child or staff member, as the case may be, to
whom the records relate is enrolled in or on the staff of the day care
facility, or

     (b)  at least 2 years following the end of the year in which the
records were created,

whichever is longer.


Portable emergency information record
24(1)  A licence holder must maintain a portable record of emergency
information that complies with subsection (2) and must ensure that it is
taken on emergency evacuations and on field trips and other activities of
the day care facility.

(2)  The emergency information must include

     (a)  in respect of each child who is expected to be taken from the
day care facility, the information required by section 23(2)(b), (c), (d),
(e) and (j), and

     (b)  the current telephone numbers of the nearest hospital emergency
centre and poison information centre.


     PART 3

     STAFFING

Qualification certificates
25(1)  In this section, "college" means a public college as defined in the
Colleges Act.

(2)  A person may apply to the Minister for a qualification certificate at
level 1, 2 or 3.

(3)  The Minister must issue a level 1 qualification certificate to an
applicant who

     (a)  has completed an orientation course for day care centre staff
that is approved by the Minister, or

     (b)  has completed course work that the Minister considers to be
equivalent to an orientation course referred to in clause (a).

(4)  The Minister must issue a level 2 qualification certificate to an
applicant who

     (a)  has received a one-year certificate in early childhood
development or education from a college, or

     (b)  has completed course work that the Minister considers to be
equivalent to the course work required for a certificate referred to in
clause (a).

(5)  The Minister must issue a level 3 qualification certificate to an
applicant who

     (a)  has received a 2-year diploma in early childhood development or
education from a college, or

     (b)  has completed course work that the Minister considers to be
equivalent to the course work required for a diploma referred to in clause
(a).


Cancellation of certificate
26   Where the Minister is satisfied that a qualification certificate was
issued based on false or inaccurate information, the Minister may cancel
the certificate by providing written notice of the cancellation to the
person to whom it was issued.


Program director
27   A licence holder for a day care centre must ensure that a full-time
program director who holds a level 3 qualification certificate is on the
staff of the day care centre at all times.


Alternate program director
28(1)  Subject to subsection (2), a licence holder for a day care centre
must ensure that a primary staff member with a level 2 or level 3
qualification certificate is designated to supervise the operation of the
day care centre when the program director is not at the day care centre.

(2)  Where a director is of the opinion that there will be no risk to the
safety and well-being of the children in a day care centre, the director
may, in writing, authorize the program director to designate a primary
staff member with a level 1 qualification certificate to supervise the
operation of the day care centre when the program director is not at the
day care centre.


Primary staff members - day care centres
29   A licence holder for a day care centre must ensure that, of the total
number of primary staff members who are on duty at the day care centre and
who are included in the calculation of the minimum primary staff member to
children ratio under section 30,

     (a)  at all times between 8:00 a.m. and 4:30 p.m., at least one in
every 4 holds a level 2 or level 3 qualification certificate and all the
others hold a level 1 qualification certificate, and

     (b)  at all other times of the day, everyone holds at least a level
1 qualification certificate.


Ratios and maximum numbers - day care centres
30(1)   Subject to this section, a licence holder for a day care centre
must ensure that the following minimum primary staff member to children
ratios, and the maximum number of children who may be included in a group,
in the day care centre are in effect at all times:

     Age of Children     Primary Staff  Maximum
          Member/Children     Number
          Ratio     of Children
               in a Group

     Under 13 months     1:3   6

     13 months or over,
     but under 19 months 1:4   8

     19 months or over,
     but under 3 years   1:6  12

     3 years or over, but
     under 4« years 1:8  16

     4« years or over    1:10 20

(2)  A licence holder for a day care centre must ensure that the following
minimum primary staff member to children ratios in the day care centre are
in effect at all times while children are sleeping:

     Age of Children     Primary Staff Member/
          Children Ratio

     Under 13 months          1:6

     13 months or over,
     but under 19 months      1:8

     19 months or over,
     but under 3 years        1:12

     3 years or over,
     but under 4« years       1:16

     4« years or over         1:20

(3)  Where a group of children in a day care centre includes children from
2 or more of the age groups specified in subsection (1) or (2), as the case
may be,

     (a)  the number of primary staff members required for the purposes
of the primary staff member to children ratio in that subsection is to be
determined by taking the sum of the proportions of the primary staff member
requirement prescribed by the applicable ratio for each child in the group,
and

     (b)  the licence holder must ensure that the composition of the
group is such that the sum of the primary staff requirement calculated in
accordance with clause (a) does not exceed 2.0.

(4)  The limitation imposed by subsection (1) on the number of children who
may be included in a group does not apply to a group referred to in
subsection (3) if the composition of the group complies with subsection
(3).

(5)  In this section, "primary staff member" means a primary staff member
who holds a qualification certificate or in respect of whom an exemption
from section 29 has been issued under section 34.


Ratios - nursery schools
31   A licence holder for a nursery school must ensure that the following
minimum primary staff member to children ratios in the nursery school are
in effect at all times:

     Age of Children     Primary Staff
          Member/Children Ratio

     Under 19 months          1:6

     19 months or over,
     but under 3 years        1:10

     3 years or over,
     but under 5 years        1:12

     5 years or over          1:15


Ratios and maximum numbers -drop-in centres
32(1)  Subject to this section, a licence holder for a drop-in centre must
ensure that the following minimum primary staff member to children ratios,
and the maximum number of children who may be included in a group,  in the
drop-in centre are in effect at all times:

Age of Children     Primary Staff  Maximum Number of
          Member/Children     Children in a Group
          Ratio

Under 19 months     1:5  10

19 months or over,
but under 3 years   1:8  16

3 years or over,
but under 5 years   1:12 24

5 years or over     1:15 30

(2)  Where a group of children in a drop-in centre includes children from 2
or more of the age groups specified in subsection (1),

     (a)  the number of primary staff members required for the purposes
of the primary staff member to children ratio in that subsection is to be
determined by taking the sum of the proportions of the primary staff member
requirement prescribed by the applicable ratio for each child in the group,
and

     (b)  the licence holder must ensure that the composition of the
group is such that the sum of the primary staff requirement calculated in
accordance with clause (a) does not exceed 2.0.


(3)  The limitation imposed by subsection (1) on the number of children who
may be included in a group does not apply to a group referred to in
subsection (2) if the composition of the group complies with subsection
(2).


Minimum staff requirements
33(1)  Without limiting sections 30, 31 and 32, a licence holder must
ensure that

     (a)  when 7 or more children are present at a day care facility, at
least 2 adult staff members are on duty in the day care facility, at least
one of whom is a primary staff member, and

     (b)  no staff member under 18 years of age is solely responsible for
the supervision of the children.

(2)  For the purposes of subsection (1)(a), in the case of a day care
centre, "primary staff member" means a primary staff member who holds a
qualification certificate or in respect of whom an exemption from section
29 has been issued under section 34.


Exemptions
34   The Minister may, in writing, exempt a licence holder from any
qualification requirement of section 27 or 29 in respect of a specific
staff position if the Minister is satisfied that

     (a)  the licence holder has made every reasonable effort to fill the
position with a qualified person, or

     (b)  the person selected to fill the position is engaged in the
course work necessary to obtain the qualification certificate otherwise
required for the position.


General supervision requirement
35   Notwithstanding sections 30 to 33, a licence holder must ensure that
the children are, at all times while they are present at, or involved in
activities arranged by, the day care facility, under such supervision as is
adequate to ensure the development, safety and well-being of the children.


First aid staffing
36   A licence holder must ensure that at least one of every 4 staff
members who provide care to children at any time in a day care facility
holds a valid first aid certificate acceptable to a director.


     PART 4

     TRANSITIONAL PROVISIONS, REPEALS, EXPIRY
     AND COMING INTO FORCE

Transitional provisions
37   A person who holds a licence under the Day Care Regulation (AR 333/90)
immediately before the coming into force of this Regulation is deemed to
hold the same licence as if issued under this Regulation.


Repeal
38   The Day Care Regulation (AR 333/90) is repealed.


Expiry
39   For the purpose of ensuring that this Regulation is reviewed for
ongoing relevancy and necessity, with the option that it may be repassed in
its present or an amended form following a review, this Regulation expires
on October 31, 2005.


Coming into force
40   This Regulation comes into force on October 31, 2000.


     ------------------------------

     Alberta Regulation 181/2000

     Environmental Protection and Enhancement Act

     OZONE-DEPLETING SUBSTANCES AND
     HALOCARBONS REGULATION

     Filed:  August 23, 2000

Made by the Lieutenant Governor in Council (O.C. 319/2000) on August 23,
2000 pursuant to sections 82 and 225 of the Environmental Protection and
Enhancement Act.


     Table of Contents

Definitions    1
General prohibition 2
Refillable containers    3
Manufacture or sale 4
Refrigeration and air conditioning equipment 5
Halon servicing     6
Apprenticeship and Industry Training Act     7
Returns and reports 8
Label, mark is evidence  9
Offences  10
Due diligence defence    11
Repeal    12
Coming into force   13

Schedules


Definitions
1   In this Regulation, 

     (a)  "charge" means to add an ozone-depleting substance or
halocarbon to a refrigeration or air conditioning system;

     (b)  "Director" means the person designated by Ministerial order as
Director for the purposes of this Regulation;

     (c)  "halocarbon" means a substance listed in Schedule 3 or 4, and
includes a substance that contains such a substance;

     (d)  "ozone-depleting substance" means a substance listed in
Schedule 1 or 2, and includes a substance that contains such a substance;

     (e)  "servicing procedure" means a procedure associated with the
installation, maintenance, inspection, testing, leak detection, repair,
labelling, alteration, conversion or temporary or permanent decommissioning
of a refrigeration or air conditioning system or white goods or components
of a refrigeration or air conditioning system or white goods;

     (f)  "white goods" means cooling and refrigeration appliances
including, without limitation, refrigerators and freezers.


General prohibition
2(1)  Unless subsections (3) to (6) are not contravened or unless permitted
by any enactment of Alberta or Canada or by approval, no person shall
release or permit the release of an ozone-depleting substance or halocarbon
into the environment.

(2)  Subsection (1) does not apply to the release of an ozone-depleting
substance or halocarbon into the environment from any thing while it is
used

     (a)  in the course of fighting fires;

     (b)  in human or animal health care applications, such as the
following:

               (i)  bronchial dilators;

               (ii) inhalable steroids;

               (iii)     topical anaesthetics;

               (iv) veterinary powder wound sprays;

               (v)  sterilization of medical equipment;

     (c)  in laboratory analytical procedures.

(3)  On and after September 1, 2000, no person shall charge or permit the
charge of an air conditioning system that is designed for passengers in
motor vehicles, with a chlorofluorocarbon or any mixture containing a
chlorofluorocarbon listed in items (a) to (e) of Schedule 1.

(4)  No person shall release or permit the release of more than one
kilogram of an ozone-depleting substance or halocarbon per kilogram of air
from an air purge system for purging non-condensible gases from a low
pressure centrifugal chiller on or used on a refrigeration system or air
conditioning system that was installed on or after September 1, 1993.

(5)  Notwithstanding subsection (4), on and after January 1, 2003, no
person shall release or permit the release of more than 0.1 kilogram of an
ozone-depleting substance or halocarbon per kilogram of air from an air
purge system for purging non-condensible gases from a low pressure
centrifugal chiller on or used on a refrigeration system or air
conditioning system that was installed before January 1, 2001.

(6)  No person shall release or permit the release of more than 0.1
kilogram of an ozone-depleting substance or halocarbon per kilogram of air
from an air purge system for purging non-condensible gases from a low
pressure centrifugal chiller on or used on a refrigeration system or air
conditioning system that was installed on or after January 1, 2001.


Refillable container
3   On and after January 1, 2001, no person shall sell or purchase an
ozone-depleting substance or halocarbon used as a refrigerant in
refrigeration or air conditioning, unless it is in a container that is
designed to be refilled and to contain that substance.


Manufacture or sale
4(1)  Subject to subsections (2) to (4), no person shall manufacture, offer
for sale or sell

     (a)  any thing containing an ozone-depleting substance listed in
Schedule 1 that acts as a propellant,

     (b)  packaging, wrapping or containers that contain an
ozone-depleting substance listed in Schedule 1 or that are manufactured by
a process that uses an ozone-depleting substance listed in Schedule 1,

     (c)  a portable hand-held fire extinguisher that contains an
ozone-depleting substance listed in Schedule 1 or that is manufactured by a
process that uses an ozone depleting substance listed in Schedule 1,

     (d)  rigid foam insulation or flexible furniture foam made with any
ozone-depleting substance listed in Schedule 1, or

     (e)  any thing that contains an ozone-depleting substance listed in
Schedule 1 that is

               (i)  a release agent for molds used in the manufacture
of plastic materials,

               (ii) a cleaning solvent for commercial use on electronic
or electrical equipment,

               (iii)     a protective spray for application to photographs,
or

               (iv) a lubricant for use in mining operations.

(2)  Subsection (1)(c) does not apply to the sale or offering for sale of a
fire extinguisher that was manufactured before September 1, 1993.

(3)  Subsection (1)(d) does not apply to the following:

     (a)  with respect to rigid foam insulation, other than rigid foam
insulation used in white goods,

               (i)  its manufacture, sale or offering for sale before
July 1, 1994, or

               (ii) its sale or offering for sale after July 1, 1994 if
it was manufactured before July 1, 1994;

     (b)  with respect to rigid foam insulation used in white goods,

               (i)  its manufacture, sale or offering for sale before
January 1, 1996, or

               (ii) its sale or offering for sale after January 1, 1996
if it was manufactured before January 1, 1996;

     (c)  with respect to flexible furniture foam,

               (i)  its manufacture, sale or offering for sale before
January 1, 1994, or

               (ii) its sale or offering for sale after January 1, 1994
if it was manufactured before January 1, 1994.

(4)  Subsection (1)(e) does not apply to

     (a)  the manufacture, sale or offering for sale of any thing
referred to in clause (e) before January 1, 1994, or

     (b)  the sale or offering for sale after January 1, 1994 of any
thing referred to in clause (e) that was manufactured before January 1,
1994.


Refrigeration and air conditioning equipment
5   A person who services a refrigeration system or air conditioning system
that contains or may contain an ozone-depleting substance or a halocarbon
must conduct the servicing procedures in accordance with the Environment
Canada Environmental Code of Practice for Elimination of Fluorocarbon
Emissions from Refrigeration and Air Conditioning Systems EPS 1/RA/2 March
1996, as amended from time to time.


Halon servicing
6(1)  A person who services a fire suppression system or equipment that
contains or may contain a halon listed in Schedule 1 must conduct the
servicing procedures in accordance with the publication
ULC/ORD-C1058.18-1993, entitled The Servicing of Halon Extinguishing
Systems, as amended from time to time.

(2)  No person shall install a fire suppression system or equipment
containing halon listed in Schedule 1 on or after December 1, 2000.

(3)  No person shall use an ozone-depleting substance for the purpose of
testing for leaks in a fire suppression system.

(4)  No person shall add a halon listed in Schedule 1 to a fire suppression
system unless the system has been tested for leaks and all the leaks have
been repaired.

(5)  A person responsible for a fire suppression system that contains a
halon listed in Schedule 1 in a combined amount of 40 kilograms or greater
must prepare a halon management plan applicable to the facility where the
system is located that includes

     (a)  written procedures for servicing of the fire suppression
system, and

     (b)  a plan and time schedule for phase-out and replacement of
halon.

(6)  The halon management plan referred to in subsection (5) must be
prepared by January 1, 2002.

(7)  The halon management plan referred to in subsection (5) must be
available on and after January 1, 2002 at the facility for inspection by an
inspector of Alberta Environment on request.


Apprentice- ship and Industry Training Act
7   No person shall service equipment that contains or may contain an
ozone-depleting substance or a halocarbon unless that person is qualified
to do such servicing under the Apprenticeship and Industry Training Act and
the regulations under that Act.


Returns and reports
8(1)  The Director may by notice in writing directed to the person
responsible for an ozone-depleting substance or a halocarbon

     (a)  require any returns or reports respecting a release of the
ozone-depleting substance or halocarbon into the environment resulting from
the construction, operation or reclamation of a plant, structure or thing,

     (b)  specify the manner and frequency of sampling, recording and
reporting of the performance of a plant, structure or thing from which the
ozone-depleting substance or halocarbon is or could be released into the
environment, and

     (c)  specify an analytical method for determining the presence of
the ozone-depleting substance or halocarbon at a plant, structure or thing
that has affected, is affecting or may affect air emissions from the plant,
structure or thing.

(2)  A person who receives a notice in writing under subsection (1) must
comply with it in accordance with its terms.


Label, mark is evidence
9   In a prosecution or proceeding under this Regulation, evidence that a
container, vessel or equipment bore a mark or label indicating that a
container, vessel or equipment contained an ozone-depleting substance or
halocarbon is, in the absence of evidence to the contrary, proof that the
container, vessel or equipment contained the substance so identified.


Offences
10   Any person who contravenes section 2, 3, 4(1), 5, 6, 7 or 8(2) is
guilty of an offence and liable,

     (a)  in the case of an individual, to a fine of not more than $50
000, or

     (b)  in the case of a corporation, to a fine of not more than $500
000.


Due diligence defence
11   No person may be convicted of an offence under this Regulation if that
person establishes on a balance of probabilities that the person took all
reasonable steps to prevent its commission.


Repeal
12   The Ozone-depleting Substances Regulation (AR 125/93) is repealed.


Coming into force
13   This Regulation comes into force on September 1, 2000.


     SCHEDULE 1
     CHLOROFLUOROCARBONS (CFCs)
     HALONS AND CHLOROCARBONS

     (a)  CFC-11, also known as fluorotrichloromethane;

     (b)  CFC-12, also known as dichlorodifluoromethane;

     (c)  CFC-113, also known as 1,1,2-trichloro-1,2,2-
     trifluoroethane;

     (d)  CFC-114, also known as 1,2-dichloro- 1,1,2,2-
     tetrafluoroethane;

     (e)  CFC-115, also known as 1-chloro- 1,1,2,2,2- pentafluoroethane;

     (f)  Halon-1211, also known as bromochlorodifluoromethane;

     (g)  Halon-1301, also known as bromotrifluoromethane;

     (h)  Halon-2402, also known as dibromotetrafluoroethane;

     (i)  All other bromofluorocarbons and bromochlorofluorocarbons;

     (j)  Carbon tetrachloride;

     (k)  Methyl chloroform, also known as 1,1,1-trichloroethane.


     SCHEDULE 2

     HYDROCHLOROFLUOROCARBONS (HCFCs)

(where used as a refrigerant in refrigeration and air conditioning)

     (a)  HCFC-21 (hydrochlorofluorocarbon-21), also known as
dichlorofluoromethane;

     (b)  HCFC-22 (hydrochlorofluorocarbon-22), also known as
chlorodifluoromethane;

     (c)  HCFC-31 (hydrochlorofluorocarbon-31), also known as
chlorofluoromethane;

     (d)  HCFC-121 (hydrochlorofluorocarbon-121), also known as
tetrachlorofluoroethane;

     (e)  HCFC-122 (hydrochlorofluorocarbon-122), also known as
trichlorodifluoroethane;

     (f)  HCFC-123 (hydrochlorofluorocarbon-123), also known as
dichlorotrifluoroethane;

     (g)  HCFC-124 (hydrochlorofluorocarbon-124), also known as
chlorotetrafluoroethane;

     (h)  HCFC-131 (hydrochlorofluorocarbon-131), also known as
trichlorofluoroethane;

     (i)  HCFC-132 (hydrochlorofluorocarbon-132), also known as
dichlorodifluoroethane;

     (j)  HCFC-133 (hydrochlorofluorocarbon-133), also known as
chlorotrifluoroethane;

     (k)  HCFC-141 (hydrochlorofluorocarbon-141), also known as
dichlorofluoroethane;

     (l)  HCFC-142 (hydrochlorofluorocarbon-142), also known as
chlorodifluoroethane;

     (m)  HCFC-221 (hydrochlorofluorocarbon-221), also known as
hexachlorofluoropropane;

     (n)  HCFC-222 (hydrochlorofluorocarbon-222), also known as
pentachlorodifluoropropane;

     (o)  HCFC-223 (hydrochlorofluorocarbon-223), also known as
tetrachlorotrifluoropropane;

     (p)  HCFC-224 (hydrochlorofluorocarbon-224), also known as
trichlorotetrafluoropropane;

     (q)  HCFC-225 (hydrochlorofluorocarbon-225), also known as
dichloropentafluoropropane;

     (r)  HCFC-226 (hydrochlorofluorocarbon-226), also known as
chlorohexafluoropropane;

     (s)  HCFC-231 (hydrochlorofluorocarbon-231), also known as
pentachlorofluoropropane;

     (t)  HCFC-232 (hydrochlorofluorocarbon-232), also known as
tetrachlorodifluoropropane;

     (u)  HCFC-233 (hydrochlorofluorocarbon-233), also known as
trichlorotrifluoropropane;

     (v)  HCFC-234 (hydrochlorofluorocarbon-234), also known as
dichlorotetrafluoropropane;

     (w)  HCFC-235 (hydrochlorofluorocarbon-235), also known as
chloropentafluoropropane;

     (x)  HCFC-241 (hydrochlorofluorocarbon-241), also known as
tetrachlorofluoropropane;

     (y)  HCFC-242 (hydrochlorofluorocarbon-242), also known as
trichlorodifluoropropane;

     (z)  HCFC-243 (hydrochlorofluorocarbon-243), also known as
dichlorotrifluoropropane;

     (aa) HCFC-244 (hydrochlorofluorocarbon-244), also known as
chlorotetrafluoropropane;

     (bb) HCFC-251 (hydrochlorofluorocarbon-251), also known as
trichlorofluoropropane;

     (cc) HCFC-252 (hydrochlorofluorocarbon-252), also known as
dichlorodifluoropropane;

     (dd) HCFC-253 (hydrochlorofluorocarbon-253), also known as
chlorotrifluoropropane;

     (ee) HCFC-261 (hydrochlorofluorocarbon-261), also known as
dichlorofluoropropane;

     (ff) HCFC-262 (hydrochlorofluorocarbon-262), also known as
chlorodifluoropropane;

     (gg) HCFC-271 (hydrochlorofluorocarbon-271), also known as
chlorofluoropropane.

All isomers of the above.
All mixtures and azeotropes of the above.


     SCHEDULE 3

     HYDROFLUOROCARBONS (HFCs)

(where used as a refrigerant in refrigeration and air conditioning)

     (a)  HFC 23 - trifluoromethane;

     (b)  HFC 32 - difluoromethane;

     (c)  HFC 125 - pentafluoroethane;

     (d)  HFC 134 - tetrafluoroethane;

     (e)  HFC 143 - trifluoroethane;

     (f)  HFC 152 - difluoroethane;

     (g)  HFC 161 - monofluoroethane;

     (h)  HFC 281 - fluoropropane;

     (i)  HFC 272 - difluoropropane;

     (j)  HFC 263 - trifluoropropane;

     (k)  HFC 254 - tetrafluoropropane;

     (l)  HFC 245 - pentafluoropropane;

     (m)  HFC 236 - hexafluoropropane;

     (n)  HFC 227 - heptafluoropropane;

     (o)  HFC 218 - octafluoropropane.

Mixtures

All isomers of the above.
All mixtures and azeotropes of the above.
Mixtures or azeotropes of the above with HCFCs are part of     Schedule 2.
Mixtures or azeotropes of the above containing CFCs are part of    
Schedule 1.


     SCHEDULE 4

     PERFLUOROCARBONS (PFCs)

(where used as a refrigerant in refrigeration and air conditioning)

     (a)  FC-14, also known as tetrafluoromethane;

     (b)  FC-116, also known as hexafluoroethane;

     (c)  FC-218, also known as octafluoropropane;

     (d)  FC-3-1-10, also known as decafluorobutane;

     (e)  FC-4-1-12, also known as dodecafluoropentane;

     (f)  FC-5-1-14, also known as tetradecafluorohexane.

Mixtures

A mixture containing one of the above.
Any azeotropes of the above.
Mixtures or azeotropes of the above with HCFCs are part of     Schedule 2.


     ------------------------------

     Alberta Regulation 182/2000

     Government Organization Act

     ENVIRONMENT GRANT REGULATION

     Filed:  August 23, 2000

Made by the Lieutenant Governor in Council (O.C. 321/2000) on August 23,
2000 pursuant to section 13 of the Government Organization Act.


     Table of Contents

Authority of Minister    1
Application    2
Delegation     3
Agreements     4
Refund of surplus or repayment     5
Accountability 6
Repeal    7
Expiry    8


Authority of Minister
1(1)  The Minister of Environment is authorized to make grants in
accordance with this Regulation.

(2)  The Minister may make grants to a person or organization for purposes
related to any program, service or other matter under the administration of
the Minister.


Application
2   An application for a grant must be made in the manner and form that the
Minister determines.


Delegation
3   The Minister may delegate to any employee of the Government any power
conferred on the Minister under section 13 of the Government Organization
Act or under this Regulation.


Agreements
4   The Minister may enter into agreements, and may require an applicant
for a grant to enter into an agreement, with respect to any matter relating
to a grant.


Refund of surplus or repayment
5(1)  The recipient of a grant may use the money

     (a)  only for the purpose for which the grant is made, or

     (b)  if the original purpose for which the grant is made is varied
with the consent of the Minister, only for the purpose as varied.

(2)  If the recipient of a grant does not use all of the money for the
purpose for which the grant is made, the Minister may require the recipient
to refund the surplus money to the Provincial Treasurer.

(3)  The Minister may require the recipient of a grant to repay all or part
of the money to the Provincial Treasurer if the recipient does not comply
with any conditions of the grant or does not use the money as required
under this Regulation.


Accountability
6   The Minister may at any time require that the recipient of a grant

     (a)  provide information to the Minister so that the Minister may
determine whether the recipient is complying with the conditions of the
grant and is using the money as required under this Regulation,

     (b)  provide an audited financial statement of the expenditure of
the money, and

     (c)  permit a representative of the Minister or the Auditor General,
or both, to examine any books or records to determine whether the money has
been properly expended.


Repeal
7   The following regulations are repealed:

     (a)  Environment Grants Regulations (AR 51/76);

     (b)  Forestry, Lands and Wildlife Grant Regulation (AR 347/86).


Expiry
8   For the purpose of ensuring that this Regulation is reviewed for
ongoing relevancy and necessity, with the option that it may be repassed in
its present or an amended form following a review, this Regulation expires
on November 30, 2005.


     ------------------------------

     Alberta Regulation 183/2000

     Municipal Government Act

     HIGHWAY 14 REGIONAL WATER SERVICES COMMISSION
     AMENDMENT REGULATION

     Filed:  August 23, 2000

Made by the Lieutenant Governor in Council (O.C. 332/2000) on August 23,
2000 pursuant to section 602.02 of the Municipal Government Act.


1   The Highway 14 Regional Water Services Commission Regulation (AR
154/90) is amended by this Regulation.


2   Section 2(d) is repealed.


     Alberta Regulation 184/2000

     Safety Codes Act

     EXEMPTION AMENDMENT REGULATION

     Filed:  August 24, 2000

Made by the Minister of Municipal Affairs (M.O. SS:002/00) on August 22,
2000 pursuant to section 2(2) of the Safety Codes Act.


1   The Exemption Regulation (AR 199/96) is amended by this Regulation.


2   Section 4 is amended by striking out "August 31, 2000" and substituting
"August 31, 2002".


     ------------------------------

     Alberta Regulation 185/2000

     Child Welfare Act

     GENERAL AMENDMENT REGULATION

     Filed:  August 25, 2000

Made by the Minister of Children's Services (M.O. 51/00) on August 24, 2000
pursuant to section 96(2) of the Child Welfare Act.


1   The General Regulation (AR 192/85) is amended by this Regulation.


2   Schedule 2 is amended by adding the following after clause (h):

     (j)  Woods Homes (Calgary);

     (k)  Central Peace Group Home (Rycroft);

     (l)  Sifton Children's Centre Protective Safe House (Lethbridge);

     (m)  Saamis Children's Centre Protective Safe House (Medicine Hat).


     Alberta Regulation 186/2000

     Cancer Programs Act

     CANCER PROGRAMS AMENDMENT REGULATION

     Filed:  August 25, 2000

Made by the Minister of Health and Wellness (M.O. 79/2000) on August 24,
2000 pursuant to sections 17 and 20.9 of the Cancer Programs Act.


1   The Cancer Programs Regulation (AR 242/98) is amended by this
Regulation.


2   The Schedule is repealed and the following is substituted:

     SCHEDULE


Drug
Group
Dosage Form
Criteria


13 Cis-RETINOIC ACID
     2
capsules
Pediatrics
  restricted to the treatment of advanced stage neuroblastoma following
POG/CCG Protocols
  prescribing limited to written authorization by physicians recommended by
the pediatric tumour program


ALL-TRANS RETINOIC ACID
     2
capsules
 restricted to treatment of acute promyelocytic leukemia
 prescribing limited to written authorization by physicians recommended by
the hematology/lymphoma tumour program or the pediatric tumour program


ALTRETAMINE
     2
capsules
 restricted to treatment of 2nd line ovarian cancer
 prescribing limited to written authorization by physicians recommended by
the gynecology tumour program


AMSACRINE
     2
injectable



ANASTROZOLE
     1
tablets
 2nd line hormonal therapy for postmenopausal metastatic breast cancer
 may be given first line in those patients who are at risk of a
thromboembolic event


ANAGRELIDE
     1
capsules
 for thrombocytosis due to myeloproliferative disorder
 prescribing limited to written authorization by physicians recommended by
the hematology/lymphoma tumour program


ASPARAGINASE
     2
injectable



BCG
     1
injectable
  bladder carcinoma


BICALUTAMIDE
     1
tablets
  restricted to patients who are intolerant to Nilutamide and Flutamide


BLEOMYCIN
     1
     2
injectable
pump



BUSERELIN
     1
injectable
  prostate cancer
  Restricted to:
Stage II (T2a-T2c): Neoadjuvant use pre RT (2 months pre and during RT).
Neoadjuvant use pre radical prostatectomy (4 months pre).
Stage III (T3a-T4b): Neoadjuvant use pre RT (2 months pre and during RT).
Adjuvant use (3 years post RT).
Stage IV (N1-N3) (M1-M1c): As monotherpy in medical castration.
In total androgen blockade (medical castration and nonsteriodal
antiandrogen).
  Guidelines for LHRH use in the above stated stages include: LHRH agonists
are indicated for use in patients at risk of thromboembolic disease,
strokes (CVA), myocardial infarction and also for consideration in patients
with dyslipidemia, hypertension, diabetes mellitus or where a patient is
considered intolerant to cyproterone acetate or megestrol acetate.


BUSULFAN
     1
tablets



CAPECITABINE
     2
oral
 advanced or metastatic breast cancer after failure of standard therapy
including an anthracycline and taxane
 prescribing limited to written authorization by physicians recommended by
the breast tumour program


CARBOPLATIN
     1
injectable



CARMUSTINE
     1
injectable



CHLORAMBUCIL
     1
tablets



CISPLATIN
     1
injectable



CLADRIBINE
     2
injectable
 restricted to treatment of hairy cell leukemia
 Waldenstrom's macroglobulinemia
 prescribing limited to written authorization by physicians recommended by
the hematology/lymphoma tumour program



     3
injectable
POG Protocol 9720
prescribing limited to written authorization by physicians recommended by
the pediatric tumour program


CLODRONATE
     1
oral
 treatment of osteolytic bone lesions in metastatic breast cancer


CORTISONE ACETATE
     1
tablets
 use with Mitotane only


CYCLOPHOSPHAMIDE
     1
injectable, tablets



CYPROTERONE
     1
 tablets



CYTARABINE
     1
injectable



DACARBAZINE
     1
injectable



DACTINOMYCIN
     1
injectable



DAUNORUBICIN
     1
injectable



DEXAMETHASONE
     1
injectable, tablets
  antiemetic use NOT covered


DIETHYLSTILBESTROL
     1
tablets



DIETHYLSTILBESTROL DIPHOSPHATE

     1
injectable, tablets



DOCETAXEL
     2
injectable
 restricted to the treatment of metastatic breast cancer after failure of
any previous chemotherapy regimen.





 only one taxane is to be administered to any one patient
 prescribing limited to written authorization by physicians recommended by
the breast tumour program


DOXORUBICIN
     1
injectable



DOXORUBICIN LIPOSOMAL
     2
injectable
  Kaposi's sarcoma


EPIRUBICIN
     1
injectable
 Premenopausal node positive breast cancer patients who either:

a)  are not eligible for a study and want high intensity treatment (FEC),
or
b)  have mild underlying heart disease but would benefit from an
anthracycline and who do not want high intensity treatment (EC)


ERWINIA ASPARAGINASE
     3
injectable
 restricted to use in patients hypersensitive to E. Coli asparaginase for
remission induction in acute lymphoblastic leukemia
 prescribing limited to written authorization by physicians recommended by
the pediatric tumour program
or the hematology/ lymphoma program


ESTRAMUSTINE
     1
capsules



ETOPOSIDE
     1
injectable, capsules



FLUDARABINE
     2
injectable
 previously treated chronic lymphocytic leukemia
 low grade lymphoma
 Waldenstrom's macroglobulinemia
 prescribing limited to written authorization by physicians recommended by
the hematology/lymphoma tumour program


FLUOROURACIL
     1

     2
injectable, cream
pump



FLUOXYMESTERONE
     1
tablets



FLUTAMIDE
     1
tablets
  prostate cancer


GEMCITABINE
     2
injectable
Lung Cancer
 patients who have failed treatment with Vinorelbine or Paclitaxel
containing regimens or who are unable to tolerate treatment with these
agents.
 prescribing limited to written authorization by physicians recommended by
the lung tumour program



     2
injectable
Bladder Cancer
 progressive local or metastatic transitional cell carcinoma of the
urothelium who have failed on cisplatin or are intolerant to cisplatin
based chemotherapy due to age, performance status, renal function in
concomitant medical illness.
 prescribing limited to written authorization by physicians recommended by
the GU tumour program



     2
injectable
Pancreas
 locally advanced or metastatic adenocarcinoma of the pancreas.
 prescribing limited to written authorization by physicians recommended by
the GI tumour program


GOSERELIN
     1
injectable
  prostate cancer
  Restricted to:
Stage II (T2a-T2c): Neoadjuvant use pre RT (2 months pre and during RT).
Neoadjuvant use pre radical prostatectomy (4 months pre).
Stage III (T3a-T4b): Neoadjuvant use pre RT (2 months pre and during RT).
Adjuvant use (3 years post RT).
Stage IV (N1-N3) (M1-M1c): As monotherpy in medical castration.
In total androgen blockade (medical castration and nonsteriodal
antiandrogen).
 Guidelines for LHRH use in the above stated stages include: LHRH agonists
are indicated for use in patients at risk of thromboembolic disease,
strokes (CVA), myocardial infarction and also for consideration in patients
with dyslipidemia, hypertension, diabetes mellitus or where a patient is
considered intolerant to cyproterone acetate or megestrol acetate.



     2
injectable
  breast cancer.  2nd line hormonal therapy for recurrent or metastatic
disease in ER positive pre-perimenopausal patients after tamoxifen failure.
 prescribing limited to written authorization by physicians recommended by
the breast tumour program


HYDROCORTISONE SODIUM SUCCINATE

     1

injectable

  intrathecal use only


HYDROXYUREA
     1
capsules



IDARUBICIN
     3
injectable
POG Protocol 9720
prescribing limited to written authorization by physicians recommended by
the pediatric tumour program


IFOSFAMIDE
     1
     2
injectable
pump



INTERFERON


  - alpha 2a or 2b

  - alpha 2b in new patients "98-99"
     1
injectable
  cladribine-resistant hairy cell leukemia

  Kaposi's sarcoma

  chronic myelogenous leukemia


INTERFERON
  alpha 2a ONLY
     1
injectable
 mycosis fungoides and sezary syndrome (cutaneous T-cell lymphomas)
 prescribing limited to written authorization by physicians recommended by
the hematology/lymphoma tumour program
 metastatic renal cell carcinoma


INTERFERON
 alpha 2b ONLY
     1





     2
injectable





injectable
 basal cell carcinoma
 adjuvant treatment of high risk melanoma
 2nd line therapy of superficial bladder cancer

 treatment of patients with malignant carcinoid and neuroendocrine
gastroenteropancreatic tumours not amenable to surgical extirpation
 prescribing limited to written authorization by physicians recommended by
the GI and endocrine tumour programs



     2
injectable
 maintenance therapy in multiple myeloma patients who have achieved
complete remission after high dose chemotherapy and autologous stem cell
transplant.
 follicular lymphoma and need for therapy as indicated by any of: mass >7
cm or 3 sites >3 cm, Bsx, splenomegaly @ umbilicus, compression syndromes
(GI, GU, orbit), effusions cytopenias, Age < 70 yo
 prescribing limited to written authorization by physicians recommended by
the hematology/lymphoma tumour program.


IRINOTECAN

*  NOTE:
Loperamide supplied by industry with this agent's use
     2










     2
injectable










injectable
Metastatic Colorectal Cancer
 first line (with 5FU and leucovorin).
 2nd line after 5FU based chemo.
 prescribing limited to written authorization by physicians recommended by
the GI tumour program.

Pediatrics
 restricted to the treatment of high risk metastatic rhabdomyosarcomas
following POG/CCG protocols
 prescribing limited to written authorization by physicians recommended by
the pediatric tumour program.


LETROZOLE
     1
tablets
 2nd line hormonal therapy for postmenopausal metastatic breast cancer
 may be given first line in those patients who are at risk of a
thromboembolic event


LEUCOVORIN CALCIUM
     1
injectable, tablets
 rescue therapy for methotrexate only
 in combination with 5FU


LEUPROLIDE
     1
injectable
  prostate cancer
  Restricted to:
Stage II (T2a-T2c): Neoadjuvant use pre RT (2 months pre and during RT).
Neoadjuvant use pre radical prostatectomy (4 months pre).
Stage III (T3a-T4b): Neoadjuvant use pre RT (2 months pre and during RT).
Adjuvant use (3 years post RT).
Stage IV (N1-N3) (M1-M1c): As monotherpy in medical castration.
In total androgen blockade (medical castration and nonsteriodal
antiandrogen).
  Guidelines for LHRH use in the above stated stages include: LHRH agonists
are indicated for use in patients at risk of thromboembolic disease,
strokes (CVA), myocardial infarction and also for consideration in patients
with dyslipidemia, hypertension, diabetes mellitus or where a patient is
considered intolerant to cyproterone acetate or megestrol acetate.


LOMUSTINE
     1
capsules



MECHLORETHAMINE
     1
injectable, topical



MEDROXYPROGESTERONE ACETATE
     1
tablets, injectable



MEGESTROL ACETATE
     1
tablets



MELPHALAN
     1
tablets



MERCAPTOPURINE
     1
tablets



MESNA
     1
injectable



METHOTREXATE
     1
injectable, tablets



MITOMYCIN
     1
injectable
NOTE:  3rd line for bladder cancer indication


MITOTANE
     1
tablets
 steroid replacement if required


MITOXANTRONE
     1
injectable



NANDROLONE DECANOATE
     1
injectable



NILUTAMIDE
     1
tablets
  prostate cancer


PACLITAXEL
     2
injectable
Ovarian Cancer
 first line treatment of ovarian cancer (irrespective of the stage of
disease or amount of residual disease), fallopian tube carcinoma, primary
peritoneal neoplasms
 prescribing limited to written authorization by physicians recommended by
the gynecology tumour program



     2
injectable
Lung Cancer
 prescribing limited to written authorization by physicians recommended by
the lung tumour program



     2
injectable
Breast Cancer
 restricted to the treatment of metastatic breast cancer when no response
to anthracycline (doxorubicin, epirubicin, or mitoxantrone) containing
regimen. Relapse within 1 year after completion of adjuvant chemotherapy
including an anthracycline. First assessment of efficacy after 2 courses
 only one taxane is to be administered to any one patient
 prescribing limited to written authorization by physicians recommended by
the breast tumour program


PAMIDRONATE
     1
injectable
 treatment of multiple myeloma


PEG ASPARAGINASE
     3
injectable
 prescribing limited to written authorization by physicians recommended by
the pediatric tumour program as per POG protocols


PREDNISOLONE SODIUM PHOSPHATE
     1
liquid
 first line agent for pediatric patients under 7 years of age
 2nd-line agent for pediatric patients 7 years and older unable to tolerate
prednisone tablets


PREDNISONE
     1
tablets



PROCARBAZINE
     1
capsules



RALTITREXED
     2
injectable
 treatment of metastatic colorectal cancer
NOTE:  Because there is a possibility that FUFA may provide slightly
superior survival, FUFA should remain the first choice for younger, fitter
patients.  Raltitrexed may be considered the treatment of choice in elderly
patients (over age 70), patients who have experienced severe mucositis with
FUFA despite one stage of dose reduction, or in patients with late relapse
after adjuvant treatment where the adjuvant 5FU based treatment was poorly
tolerated with documented reason for intolerance.
 prescribing limited to written authorization by physicians recommended by
the GI tumour program


RITAXIMAB
     2
injectable
 relapsed or refractory follicular lymphoma
 prescribing limited to written authorization by physicians recommended by
the lymphoma tumour program


STREPTOZOCIN
     1
injectable



TAMOXIFEN
     1
tablets



TEMOZOLOMIDE
     2
oral
  first-line treatment of recurrent glioblastoma multiforme and anaplastic
astrocytoma
  prescribing limited to written authorization by physicians recommended by
the neuro oncology tumour program


TENIPOSIDE
     1
injectable



THIOGUANINE
     1
tablets



THIOTEPA
     2
injectable



TOPOTECAN
     2
injectable
Ovarian
 advanced epithelial ovarian cancer as 2nd line therapy
 prescribing limited to written authorization by physicians recommended by
the gynecology tumour program
Pediatrics
  restricted to the treatment of advanced stage neuroblastoma following
POG/CCG Protocols
 restricted to the treatment of intermediate risk rhabdomyosarcoma
following POG/CCG protocols
  prescribing limited to written authorization by physicians recommended by
the pediatric tumour program


TRASTUZUMAB
     2
injectable
Metastatic Breast
 restricted to the treatment of metastatic breast cancer, HER 2 protein
overexpression (+3), a minimum of 6 months after an anthracycline
containing regimen
 prescribing limited to written authorization by physicians recommended by
the breast tumour program


VINBLASTINE
     1
injectable



VINCRISTINE
     1
injectable



VINORELBINE
     2
injectable
Lung Cancer
 restricted to the treatment of metastatic non-small cell lung cancer with
an ECOG score of 2 or better.
 prescribing limited to written authorization by physicians recommended by
the lung tumour program



     2
injectable
Metastatic Breast
 first line therapy for elderly patients (over 65 years of age) and 2nd or
3rd line therapy for metastatic breast cancer.  Assess response after 2
cycles.
 prescribing limited to written authorization by physicians recommended by
the breast tumour program


     ------------------------------

     Alberta Regulation 187/2000

     Marketing of Agricultural Products Act

     ALBERTA BISON COMMISSION AUTHORIZATION REGULATION

     Filed:  August 31, 2000

Made by the Alberta Agricultural Products Marketing Council on August 21,
2000 pursuant to section 26 of the Marketing of Agricultural Products Act.


Definitions
1(1)  In this Regulation,

     (a)  "Act" means the Marketing of Agricultural Products Act;

     (b)  "Commission" means the Alberta Bison Commission;

     (c)  "Plan" means the Alberta Bison Commission Plan Regulation (AR
167/2000);

     (d)  "producer" means a producer as defined in the Plan;

     (e)  "regulated product" means regulated product as defined in the
Plan.

(2)  Words defined in the Act or the Plan have the same meaning when used
in this Regulation.


Regulations made under section 26 of the Act
2   For the purposes of enabling the Commission to operate the Plan, the
Commission is hereby authorized under section 26 of the Act to make
regulations

     (a)  requiring any person who produces, markets or processes the
regulated product to furnish to the Commission any information or record
relating to the production of the regulated product that the Commission
considers necessary;

     (b)  providing for

               (i)  the assessment, charging and collection of service
charges from producers from time to time for the purposes of the Plan, and

               (ii) the taking of legal action to enforce payment of
the service charges;

     (c)  providing for the refund of service charges;

     (d)  requiring any person who produces the regulated product to
forward the amount of the service charge to the Commission;

     (e)  providing for the use of any class of service charges or other
money payable to or received by the Commission for the purpose of paying
its expenses and administering the Plan and the regulations made by the
Commission.


Expiry
3   For the purpose of ensuring that this Regulation is reviewed for
ongoing relevancy and necessity, with the option that it may be repassed in
its present or an amended form following a review, this Regulation expires
on September 30, 2005.



     Alberta Regulation 188/2000

     Marketing of Agricultural Products Act

     ALBERTA BISON COMMISSION MARKETING REGULATION

     Filed:  August 31, 2000

Made by the Alberta Bison Commission on August 22, 2000 pursuant to section
26 of the Marketing of Agricultural Products Act.


     Table of Contents

Definitions    1
Service charges     2
Variation of service charge   3
Collection of service charge  4
Refund of service charges     5
Information    6
Inspection of records    7
Use of funds   8
Interest  9
Legal action   10
Expiry    11


Definitions
1(1)  In this Regulation,

     (a)  "Act" means the Marketing of Agricultural Products Act;

     (b)  "Plan" means the Alberta Bison Commission Plan Regulation.

(2)  Words that are defined in either the Act or the Plan have the same
meaning when used in this Regulation.


Service charges
2(1)  On the coming into force of this Regulation, any producer who
produces a bison calf after March 1, 2000 must pay to the Commission a
service charge in the amount of $10 per bison calf produced.

(2)  Subject to section 11(3) and (4) of the Plan, if a head of bison is
being raised or otherwise kept in Alberta but was not born in Alberta, that
animal is deemed to be a bison calf produced in Alberta for the purposes of
the service charge.

(3)  Service charges will be applied to pay for the cost of producing and
providing a plastic identification tag to the producer.


Variation of service charge
3(1)  After the establishment of the Plan, the Board of Directors of the
Commission may, on behalf of the Commission, change the amount of the
service charge.

(2)  Notwithstanding subsection (1), a change in the amount of the service
charge is not effective until it has been approved by the eligible
producers at an annual Commission meeting or a special Commission meeting.


Collection of service charge
4(1)  Each producer who has a bison calf born or otherwise raised in
Alberta pursuant to section 2 of this Regulation must forward the service
charge in respect of that animal to the Commission.

(2)  Once the producer has paid the service charge referred to in
subsection (1), no further service charge is to be assessed in respect of
that bison calf.

(3)  Each producer must fill out a form provided by the Commission listing
the animals for which the service charge is paid.

(4)  The producer must send the service charge and the form to the
Commission within 150 days of the birth of the bison calf or of the date
when the bison animal is first raised or otherwise kept in Alberta.


Refund of service charges
5(1)  Subject to the Plan, any service charge that is paid by or on behalf
of a producer must be refunded to the producer on request of the producer.

(2)  A request for a refund of the service charge must

     (a)  be made in writing on a form that is provided by or acceptable
to the Commission, and

     (b)  contain the following information:

               (i)  the producer's name;

               (ii) the producer's mailing address and telephone
number;

               (iii)     the producer's identification number or herd
identification number, if available;

               (iv) the number of animals in respect of which the
refund is being requested;

               (v)  the numbers on the identification tags that were
issued for the animals in respect of which the refund of the service charge
is being requested;

               (vi) any specifics of the refund request.

(3)  Requests for refunds must be received by the Commission at its
official office prior to the end of January, for service charges collected
during the period commencing on the previous January 1 and ending on
December 31.

(4)  Any request for a refund that is not received by the Commission within
the time periods specified under subsection (3) must not be considered by
the Commission and the producer is not entitled to a refund in respect of
which the request was made.

(5)  Notwithstanding subsection (4), the Commission may, if it is satisfied
that extenuating circumstances exist that warrant its doing so, accept an
application for the purpose of making a refund where the application is
received after the applicable time period referred to in subsection (3).

(6)  The Commission must refund the service charge to the producer

     (a)  within 90 days after the end of the period in which the request
for a refund of the service charges is received in accordance with
subsection (3), or

     (b)  within 90 days after receipt of the request for a refund, in a
case where the request is received and accepted under subsection (5).


Information
6   The Commission may request from a producer the following information:

     (a)  the amount of regulated product produced or marketed by a
producer and the details relating to the production of the regulated
product;

     (b)  the amount of regulated product marketed by a person and the
manner in which the regulated product is marketed;

     (c)  any other general information relating to production of the
regulated product that the Commission requires to carry out its purposes
under the Act and the Plan.


Inspection of records
7(1)  If the Commission is of the opinion that circumstances warrant it,
the Commission may in writing require that a producer produce for the
Commission's inspection any record in the possession or under the control
of the producer that relates to the collection of service charges.

(2)  Where the producer receives a request in writing under subsection (1),
the producer must comply with the request in accordance with its terms.


Use of funds
8   Any funds received by the Commission under the Plan plus interest that
accrues on the funds must be used by the Commission for purposes of paying
its expenses and administering the Plan and this Regulation.


Interest
9   Interest must be paid to the Commission for any late payment of service
charges at the rate of 1% per month calculated on the balance due.


Legal action
10   The Commission may commence and maintain any legal action that is
necessary to enforce the payment of service charges that are payable under
the Plan and this Regulation.


Expiry
11   For the purpose of ensuring that this Regulation is reviewed for
ongoing relevancy and necessity, with the option that it may be repassed in
its present or an amended form following a review, this Regulation expires
on September 30, 2005.