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     Alberta Regulation 134/99

     Electric Utilities Act

     GENERATING UNITS AMENDMENT REGULATION

     Filed:  June 16, 1999

Made by the Minister of Resource Development (M.O. 27/99) pursuant to
section 45.97 of the Electric Utilities Act.


1   The Generating Units Regulation (AR 72/99) is amended by this
Regulation.


2   Section 24 is amended by repealing clauses (c), (d) and (e).


3   The Schedule is amended by striking out the following:

     Rainbow #1          APL       gas turbine         2000
     Rainbow #2          APL       gas turbine         2000
     Rainbow #3          APL       gas turbine         2000

and substituting the following:

     Rainbow #1          APL       gas turbine         2005
     Rainbow #2          APL       gas turbine         2005
     Rainbow #3          APL       gas turbine         2005


     ------------------------------

     Alberta Regulation 135/99

     Employment Standards Code

     EMPLOYMENT STANDARDS AMENDMENT REGULATION

     Filed:  June 23, 1999

Made by the Lieutenant Governor in Council (O.C. 253/99) pursuant to
section 138 of the Employment Standards Code.


1   The Employment Standards Regulation (AR 14/97) is amended by this
Regulation.


2   Section 66 is amended by striking out "1999" and substituting "2000".


     Alberta Regulation 136/99

     Corrections Act

     CORRECTIONAL INSTITUTION AMENDMENT REGULATION

     Filed:  June 23, 1999

Made by the Lieutenant Governor in Council (O.C. 255/99) pursuant to
section 33 of the Corrections Act.


1   The Correctional Institution Regulations (AR 138/77) are amended by
this Regulation.


2   Section 29(2) is amended by adding "and services" after  "items".


3   The following is added after section 29:


     29.1(1)  The Chief Executive Officer may authorize the establishment
of an inmate telephone system in an institution for the purposes of

               (a)  providing inmates with reasonable access to a
telephone, and

               (b)  ensuring the security of the institution and the
protection of the public.

     (2)  If an inmate telephone system is established under subsection
(1), the director may suspend inmate access to the inmate telephone system
if, in the director's opinion,

               (a)  the system is being misused or abused, or

               (b)  the suspension is necessary to maintain the
security of the institution.


     Alberta Regulation 137/99

     Justice of the Peace Act

     JUSTICE OF THE PEACE AMENDMENT REGULATION

     Filed:  June 23, 1999

Made by the Lieutenant Governor in Council (O.C. 257/99) pursuant to
section 7 of the Justice of the Peace Act.


1   The Justice of the Peace Regulation (AR 309/91) is amended by this
Regulation.


2   Schedule 2 is amended

     (a)  in section 3(1) by striking out "and" at the end of clause (a),
and by repealing clause (b) and substituting the following:

               (b)  from April 1, 1998 to March 31, 1999 is $43 068,
and

               (c)  from April 1, 1999 is $43 932.

     (b)  by repealing sections 3(2) and 4(2).


     ------------------------------

     Alberta Regulation 138/99

     Government Organization Act

     DESIGNATION AND TRANSFER OF RESPONSIBILITY
     AMENDMENT REGULATION

     Filed:  June 23, 1999

Made by the Lieutenant Governor in Council (O.C. 261/99) pursuant to
sections 16, 17 and 18 of the Government Organization Act.


1   The Designation and Transfer of Responsibility Regulation (AR 127/99)
is amended by this Regulation.


2   Section 1 is renumbered as section 1(1) and the following is added
after subsection (1):

     (2)  The responsibility for the administration of that part of the
public service consisting of the following position numbers is transferred
to the President of Executive Council:

               00023806
               00023764
               00023805
               00023749
               00023803
               00023804
               00023757

     (3)  The responsibility for the administration of $570 000 of element
1.0.3 of Program 1 - Intergovernmental and Aboriginal Affairs of the
operating expense and capital investment supply vote of the 1999-2000
Government appropriation for Intergovernmental and Aboriginal Affairs,
previously transferred to the Minister of International and
Intergovernmental Relations, is transferred to Executive Council. 


3   Section 3 is amended

     (a)  in subsection (1)

               (i)  by renumbering clause (a) as clause (a.1) and
adding the following before clause (a):

                         (a)  Adult Adoption Act;

               (ii) by adding the following after clause (b):

                         (b.1)     Family and Community Support Services
Act; 

                         (b.2)     Protection Against Family Violence Act;

               (iii)     by adding the following after clause (c):

                         (d)  Social Care Facilities Licensing Act;

                         (e)  Social Care Facilities Review Committee
Act.

     (b)  by adding the following after subsection (1):

          (1.1)  The function of the Minister of Family and Social
Services under the Protection for Persons in Care Act is transferred to the
Minister of Children's Services.

     (c)  by adding the following after subsection (4):

          (5)  The responsibility for the administration of that part of
the public service directly employed in the administration of the
enactments referred to in subsection (1)(b.1), (d) and (e) is transferred
to the Minister of Children's Services.

          (6)  The responsibility for the administration of a total of
$250 000 from Program 1 - Ministry Support Services, except elements 1.0.2,
1.0.3, 1.0.5 and 1.0.8, the unexpended balances of elements 1.0.5 and 1.0.8
of Program 1 - Ministry Support Services and the unexpended balance of
Program 6 - Family and Community Support Services of the operating expense
and capital investment supply vote of the 1999-2000 Government
appropriation for Family and Social Services, previously transferred to the
Minister of Human Resources and Employment, is transferred to the Minister
of Children's Services. 


4   Section 7 is amended by adding the following after subsection (6): 

     (7)  The responsibility for the administration of the Community
Lottery Program Grants program is transferred to the Minister of Gaming.

     (8)  The powers and duties of the Minister of Community Development
under Schedule 3 of the Community Development Grants Regulation (AR 57/98)
are transferred to the Minister of Gaming. 

     (9)  The responsibility for the administration of that part of the
public service directly employed in the administration of the Community
Lottery Program Grants program is transferred to the Minister of Gaming. 

     (10)  The responsibility for the administration of $275 000 of
element 1.0.3 and $50 000 of element 1.0.5 of Program 1 - Ministry Support
Services and $675 000 of element 2.1.3 and the unexpended balance of
element 2.2.5 of Program 2 - Community Services of the operating expense
and capital investment supply vote of the 1999-2000 Government
appropriation for Community Development is transferred to the Minister of
Gaming. 


5   Section 8 is amended 

     (a)  in subsection (1) by renumbering clause (a) as clause (a.1) and
adding the following before clause (a.1):

               (a)  Agricultural and Recreational Land Ownership Act;

     (b)  in subsection (2) by striking out "Review" and substituting
"Reform".


6   Section 9 is amended

     (a)  in subsection (1)(s) by striking out "30(i)" and substituting
"31(i)";

     (b)  in subsection (4) by striking out "30(i)" and substituting
"31(i)";

     (c)  by adding the following after subsection (4):

          (4.1)  The function of the Minister of Health under the
Protection for Persons in Care Act is transferred to the Minister of Health
and Wellness. 


7   Section 10 is amended 

     (a)  in subsection (1)

               (i)  by repealing clauses (a), (ff), (kk) and (ll);

               (ii) by adding the following before clause (oo):

                         (nn.1)    Student and Temporary Employment
Act;

     (b)  by repealing subsection (2); 

     (c)  by adding the following after subsection (2): 

          (2.1)  The power of the Minister of Family and Social Services
under section 9.2 of the Social Work Profession Act is transferred to the
Minister of Human Resources and Employment.

     (d)  in subsection (5) by striking out "Program, and that part
related to Freedom of Information and Protection of Privacy" and
substituting "Program and that part related to Freedom of Information and
Protection of Privacy,".


8   Section 11 is amended

     (a)  in subsection (1)

               (i)   by adding the following after clause (e):

                         (e.1)     Dangerous Goods Transportation and
Handling Act;

               (ii) in clause (g) by striking out "Schedules 8 and 12"
and substituting "Schedule 8";

               (iii)     by adding the following after clause (g):

                         (g.1)     Schedule 12, except section 14, of the
Government Organization Act;

               (iv) in clause (j) by striking out "sections 12(1) and
15" and substituting "section 15";

     (b)  by adding the following after subsection (1):

          (1.1)  The responsibility for section 15 of the Motor Transport
Act is transferred to the common responsibility  of the Minister of
Infrastructure and the Minister of Government Services.

          (1.2)  The Minister of Infrastructure is designated as the
Minister responsible for the Central Western Railway Corporation Act.


9   Section 12 is amended

     (a)  in subsection (1) by adding the following after clause (c):

               (c.1)     section 14 of Schedule 12 of the Government
Organization Act;

     (b)  in subsection (6) by adding "of the Department of Economic
Development" after "Initiatives";

     (c)  by adding the following after subsection (9):

     (10)  The responsibility for the administration of that part of the
public service consisting of the following position numbers is transferred
to the Minister of Innovation and Science: 

               00022851
               00022852
               00022853
               00022854

     (11)  The responsibility for the administration of the unexpended
balance of element 1.0.3 of Program 1 - Ministry Support Services of the
operating expense and capital investment supply vote of the 1999-2000
Government appropriation for Advanced Education and Career Development,
previously transferred to the Minister of Learning, is transferred to the
Minister of Innovation and Science.


10   Section 13 is amended by adding the following after subsection (3):

     (4)  The responsibility for the administration of that part of the
public service consisting of the following position numbers is transferred
to the Minister of International and Intergovernmental Relations:

               00022850
               00022846
               00022848
               00027485
               00022849

     (5)  The responsibility for the administration of the unexpended
balance of element 1.0.1 of Program 1 - Ministry Support Services of the
operating expense and capital investment supply vote of the 1999-2000
Government appropriation for Advanced Education and Career Development,
previously transferred to the Minister of Learning, is transferred to the
Minister of International and Intergovernmental Relations.


11   Section 14 is amended by repealing clauses (zz) and (lll).


12   Section 16 is amended

     (a)  by repealing subsection (1)(a) and (f);

     (b)  in subsection (2) by striking out "Act, section 14(1)(b) of the
Highway Traffic Act and section 15 of the Motor Transport Act" and
substituting "Act and section 14(1)(b) of the Highway Traffic Act";

     (c)  by repealing subsection (3)(a).


13   Section 17 is amended by adding the following after subsection (10):

     (11)  The responsibility for the administration of that part of the
public service consisting of the following position numbers is transferred
to the Minister of Resource Development:

               00019920
               00019172

     (12)  The responsibility for the administration of the unexpended
balance of element 1.0.6 of Program 1 - Ministry Support Services of the
operating expense and capital investment supply vote of the 1999-2000
Government appropriation for Environmental Protection, previously
transferred to the Minister of Environment, is transferred to the Minister
of Resource Development.

     (13)  The responsibility for the administration of the unexpended
balance of element 1.0.3 of Program 1 - Ministry Support Services of the
operating expense and capital investment supply vote of the 1999-2000
Government appropriation for Family and Social Services, previously
transferred to the Minister of Human Resources and Employment, is
transferred to the Minister of Resource Development.


14   Section 18(1)(j) and (y) are amended by striking out "Fund". 


15   Section 19 is amended

     (a)  by renumbering it as section 19(1);

     (b)  in subsection (1) by adding the following after clause (d): 

               (e)  Advanced Education and Career Development
Administrative Transfer Order (AR 391/92);

               (f)  Agriculture, Food and Rural Development
Administrative Transfer Order (AR 79/93);

               (g)  Alberta Energy Company Act Administrative Transfer
Order (AR 266/86);

               (h)  Alberta Energy Company Act Administrative Transfer
Order (AR 493/82);

               (i)  Alberta General Insurance Company Administrative
Transfer Order (AR 154/92);

               (j)  Alberta Government Telephones Commission
Administrative Transfer Order (AR 349/94);

               (k)  Animal Protection Act Administrative Transfer Order
(AR 38/83);

               (l)  Order Respecting Administrative Transfers from the
Attorney General (AR 239/73);

               (m)  Office of the Attorney General Administrative
Transfer Order (AR 285/88);

               (n)  Community Development Administrative Transfer Order
(AR 392/92);

               (o)  Community Development Administrative Transfer Order
No. 2 (AR 96/93)

               (p)  Community and Occupational Health Administrative
Transfer Order, No. 2 (AR 350/88);

               (q)  Consumer and Registry Services Administrative
Transfer Order (AR 97/93);

               (r)  Consumer and Registry Services Administrative
Transfer Order No. 2 (AR 199/93);

               (s)  Custody Mediation Administrative Transfer Order (AR
225/90);

               (t)  Electric Energy Administrative Transfer Order (AR
10/90);

               (u)  Employment Agencies Administrative Transfer Order
(AR 24/87);

               (v)  Energy Administrative Transfer Order (AR 196/86);

               (w)  Environmental Research Centre Transfer Regulation
(AR 136/96);

               (x)  Family and Community Support Services
Administrative Transfer Order (AR 22/90);

               (y)  Family and Social Services Administrative Transfer
Order No. 2 (AR 148/89);

               (z)  Financial Institutions Administrative Transfer
Order, No. 1 (AR 206/86);

               (aa) Firearm By-law Administrative Transfer Order (AR
39/94);

               (bb) Fuel Tax Administrative Transfer Order (AR 50/94);

               (cc) Hospital Construction Administrative Transfer Order
(AR 287/88);

               (dd) Hospitals and Medical Care Administrative Transfers
Order (AR 111/75);

               (ee) Hospitals and Medical Care Administrative Transfer
Order (AR 288/88);

               (ff) Hospitals and Medical Care Administrative Transfer
Order, 1981 (AR 247/81);

               (gg) Hospitals, Medical Care and Community Health
Administrative Transfer Order (AR 251/88);

               (hh) Housing Administrative Transfer Order (AR 198/86);

               (ii) Human Tissue Gift Act Administrative Transfer
Order, 1983 (AR 164/83);

               (jj) Insurance Corporations Tax Act Administrative
Transfer Order (AR 106/84);

               (kk) Labour Administrative Transfers Order (AR 113/75);

               (ll) Labour Administrative Transfer Order (AR 394/92);

               (mm) Land Assembly Administrative Transfer Order (AR
289/83);

               (nn) Lotteries, Major Exhibitions and Fairs
Administrative Transfer Order (AR 211/86);

               (oo) Manpower Planning Unit, Health and Social Services 
Disciplines Committee Administrative Transfer Order (AR 374/87);

               (pp) Michener Centre Administrative Transfer Order (AR
397/92);

               (qq) Mines and Minerals Act Administrative Transfer
Order (AR 85/91);

               (rr) Motor Transport Act Administrative Transfer Order
(AR 387/87);

               (ss) Municipal Affairs Administrative Transfer Order (AR
45/87);

               (tt) Municipal Affairs Administrative Transfer Order (AR
254/88);

               (uu) Municipal Affairs, Public Works, Supply and
Services Administrative Transfer Order (AR 308/93);

               (vv) National Infrastructure Program Administrative
Transfer Order (AR 329/94);

               (ww) Native Affairs Programs Administrative Transfer
Order (AR 246/92);

               (xx) Native Affairs Programs Administrative Transfer
Order (AR 25/93);

               (yy) Native Affairs Secretariat Administrative Transfer
Order (AR 207/86);

               (zz) Native Services and Programs Administrative
Transfer Order (AR 196/91);

               (aaa)     Office of the Chief Information Officer Transfer
Regulation (AR 124/97);

               (bbb)     President of the Executive Council Administrative
Transfer Order (AR 399/92);

               (ccc)     Provincial Treasurer Administrative Transfers Order
(AR 178/75);

               (ddd)     Public Lands Administrative Transfer Order (AR
90/93);

               (eee)     Public Lands and Wildlife Administrative Transfer
Order, 1979 (AR 119/79);

               (fff)     Public Service Miscellaneous Administrative
Transfer Order (AR 82/93);

               (ggg)     Public Utilities Board Administrative Transfer
Order (AR 64/90);

               (hhh)     Recreation and Parks Administrative Transfer Order,
1979 (AR 120/79);

               (iii)     Road Authority Administrative Transfer Order (AR
169/93);

               (jjj)     Security Services Administrative Transfer Order (AR
265/89);

               (kkk)     Seniors Administrative Transfer Order (AR 26/93);

               (lll)     Seniors Advisory Council Administrative Transfer
Order (AR 324/94);

               (mmm)     Seniors, Family and Social Services Administrative
Transfer Order (AR 289/91);

               (nnn)     Seniors Shelter Grants Administrative Transfer
Order (AR 291/94);

               (ooo)     Social Services and Community Health Administrative
Transfers Order (No. 4) (AR 285/80);

               (ppp)     Solicitor General Administrative Transfers Order
(AR 145/75);

               (qqq)     Solicitor General Administrative Transfer Order,
1980 (AR 306/80);

               (rrr)     Student and Temporary Employment Order (AR 197/93);

               (sss)     Tourism, Economic Development and AADAC
Administrative Transfer Order (AR 9/94);

               (ttt)     Transportation Services Administrative Transfer
Order (AR 201/90);

               (uuu)     Transportation and Utilities Administrative
Transfer Order (AR 202/86);

               (vvv)     Treasury Department Administrative Transfer Order
(AR 402/92);

               (www)     Young Offenders Program Administrative Transfer
Order (AR 304/86).

     (c)  by adding the following after subsection (1):

          (2)  The Reorganization Administrative Transfer Order (AR
200/93) is amended by repealing section 4.


     ------------------------------

     Alberta Regulation 139/99

     Dairy Industry Act

     DAIRY INDUSTRY REGULATION

     Filed:  June 23, 1999

Made by the Lieutenant Governor in Council (O.C. 262/99) pursuant to
section 39 of the Dairy Industry Act (SA 1999 cD-1.2).


     Table of Contents

Interpretation 1

     Part 1
     Licences

     Dairy Industry Act Licences

Classes of licences 2
Application for licence  3
Conditions of licence    4
Licence term   5
Licence not transferable 6
Licence format 7

     Part 2
     Milk Production and Transportation

     Dairy Barn, Milk House and Milking Parlour

Dairy barn, milk house   8
Road 9
Building approval   10

     Dairy Barns 

Barn required  11
Dairy barn standards     12
Dairy barn construction  13

     Milking Parlours

Milking parlour     14

     Milk Houses

Milk house purpose  15
Milk house standards     16
Cleansing standards 17
Storage of hazardous products 18
Hose port 19
Equipment 20

     Bulk Milk Tanks

Bulk milk tank 21
Installation   22
Milk from approved tank  23
Clearances     24
Standards 25
Milk temperature    26
Cream temperature   27

     Milk and Cream Handling Equipment

Equipment in contact with milk     28
Equipment maintenance    29
Milk handling equipment  30

     Milking Operations

Cleanliness, maintenance 31
Staff     32
Single species milk 33
Milking   34
Milking equipment sanitation  35
Cleansers 36

     Care of Dairy Animals

Housing   37
Drugs     38

     Milk Handling and Transport

Licence required    39
Milk collection     40

     Milk Transport Vehicles

Milk transport vehicles required   41
Tank standards 42

     Part 3
     Samples, Testing, Standards and Grades

     Milk and Cream Quality Standards

Milk, cream standards    43
Saleable milk  44
Samples   45
Testing   46

     Milk Grading

Grade tests    47
Grading   48
Grade adjustments   49
Drug residue ramifications    50
Bacteria ramifications   51
Freezing point ramifications  52
Cleanliness ramifications     53
Testing milk   54


     Part 4
     Processing

Processor duties    55

     Construction, Layout and Operation of Dairy Plants

Plant land     56
Plant standards     57
Dairy plant water system 58
Dairy plant lighting     59
Ventilation    60
Refrigeration  61
Contamination prevention 62

     Thermal Processing

Pasteurization 63
Pasteurization equipment 64
Required temperatures    65
Records   66
Washing, sanitizing 67

     Employees and Visitors

Employees 68
Hygiene standards   69
Diseased people     70

     Dairy Plant Operations

Allowable milk 71
Storage   72
Non-milk ingredients     73
Equipment requirements   74
Operation requirements   75
Hazardous agents    76
Product identification   77

     Sampling, Testing and Standards
     of Dairy Products

Bacterial standards.     78
Pasteurized milk standard     79

     Part 5
     Written Notice

Giving notice  80

     Part 6
     Repeals, Expiry and Coming into Force

Repeals   81
Expiry    82
Coming into force   83

Schedules


Interpretation
1(1)  In this Regulation, 

     (a)  "Act" means the Dairy Industry Act;

     (b)  "bulk milk tank" means a stationary storage tank used for the
cooling and holding of raw milk on a dairy farm and includes the fixtures
and equipment used in connection with it;

     (c)  "commercially sterile" means the condition obtained in a dairy
product that has been processed by the application of heat alone or in
combination with other treatments, to render the dairy product free from
viable forms of micro-organisms, including spores, that would be capable of
growing in the dairy product at normal temperatures at which the milk or
dairy product is intended to be held during distribution and storage;

     (d)  "communicable disease" means a communicable disease as defined
in the Communicable Diseases Regulation (AR 238/85);

     (e)  "critical control point" means a point or procedure in a dairy
plant where, with respect to the receiving of milk or the processing of
dairy products, a failure to exercise  control over the process at that
point or a failure to follow a procedure in the process may result in a
health hazard;

     (f)  "critical limit" means identified tolerances in processing that
must be met to ensure that a critical control point effectively controls a
health hazard;

     (g)  "gross producer returns" means the value of milk delivered by a
producer to a processor before any deductions or adjustments are made under
this Regulation;

     (h)  "HTST" means high-temperature, short-time, when used with
reference to the pasteurization of a dairy product;

     (i)  "market" means to sell, re-sell, offer for sale or re-sale,
keep for sale or re-sale, buy, price, assemble, pack, handle, store,
deliver or transport;

     (j)  "milk house" means a building, room or rooms on a dairy farm
used for cooling and storing milk or farm-separated cream and for cleaning
and sanitizing equipment used in the production and storage of raw milk or
farm-separated cream;

     (k)  "sanitize" means the process of reducing the number of
bacterial contaminants by means of heat or chemical treatment;

     (l)  "standard methods" means the microbiological, chemical and
compositional methods of analysis as approved by any of the organizations
referred to in section 46(2);

     (m)  "thermal processing" means a heat preservation process applied
to food with the object of reducing the level of pathogens associated with
that food in order to ensure the safety of that food over its intended
shelf-life and storage conditions;

     (n)  "3-A Standards" means the 3-A Standards published by the
International Association of Milk, Food and Environmental Sanitarians, as
amended or replaced from time to time;

     (o)  "UHT" means ultra high temperature processing of dairy products
by systems that are capable of rendering the dairy products commercially
sterile on exiting the thermal processor.

(2)  For the purposes of this Regulation, a reference to

     (a)   the Food and Drugs Act (Canada) includes the regulations under
that Act, and

     (b)  the Dairy Board Act includes the regulations under that Act.


     PART 1

     LICENCES

     Dairy Industry Act Licences

Classes of licences
2   The Director may issue the following classes of licences:

     (a)  bulk milk grader;

     (b)  pasteurizer operator.


Application for licence
3(1)  An application for a licence must be made to the Director.

(2)  An application must

     (a)  contain the information and any documentation required by the
Director,

     (b)  be accompanied by evidence satisfactory to the Director that
the applicant has taken a course specified by the Director and has
satisfactorily passed an examination required by the Director, and

     (c)  be accompanied by the applicable fee.

(3)  The Director may issue a licence if the Director is satisfied that the
application meets the requirements of this section.


Conditions of licence
4   The standards and requirements set out in the Act and this Regulation
are conditions imposed on each licence issued by the Director under this
Regulation.


Licence term
5   The term of a licence expires on the 5th December 31 following its
issue, unless an earlier expiry date is specified by the Director on the
licence.


Licence not transferable
6   A licence issued under this Regulation is not transferable.


Licence format
7  A licence must be in a form provided by the Minister.


     PART 2

     MILK PRODUCTION AND TRANSPORTATION

     Dairy Barn, Milk House and Milking Parlour

Dairy barn, milk house
8   The land surrounding a dairy barn and milk house must be

     (a)  configured and maintained in a manner that prevents
contamination of milk and farm-separated cream,

     (b)  kept free of refuse and animal and vegetable wastes, and

     (c)  well drained.


Road
9   In order to permit passage by a milk transport vehicle, a producer's
road to a milk house must be maintained by the producer so that access to
the milk house is

     (a)  safe and easy in all weather conditions, and

     (b)  free of animals, locked gates and other obstacles.


Building approval
10   No person shall

     (a)  construct a building for use for dairy purposes on a dairy
farm, or

     (b)  renovate or remodel a building for use or used for dairy
purposes on a dairy farm in a way that materially affects the milk handling
operation,

unless an inspector has first approved the proposed site and plans.


     Dairy Barns

Barn required
11   Every dairy farm must have a dairy barn located on it.


Dairy barn standards
12(1)  A dairy barn must be

     (a)  kept clean,

     (b)  maintained in good repair,

     (c)  provided with a water source, and

     (d)  insulated and ventilated so as to prevent the accumulation of
odours and water condensation.

(2)  In a dairy barn,

     (a)  manure must be removed at least daily from animal stalls,
floors, alleyways, gutters and holding areas, and

     (b)  box stalls and calf pens must be maintained in clean, dry and
sanitary conditions, free of strong odours.

(3)  A loose housing barn must be provided with bedding distributed on a
regular basis sufficient to provide a clean, dry rest area for the animals
and must be cleaned out at least once a year.


Dairy barn construction
13(1)  A dairy barn must be designed and constructed in a manner that

      (a) permits the operations carried on in it to be performed under
sanitary conditions,

      (b) prevents the contamination of milk and farm-separated cream,
and

      (c) prevents injury to and damage by dairy animals.

(2)  A dairy barn must be constructed of materials that

      (a) are durable,

      (b) permit the effective cleaning of all interior surfaces, and

     (c)  are free of any toxic or noxious substances.

(3)  Subject to subsection (4), stall platforms, gutters, holding areas 
and alleyways of a dairy barn must be

     (a)  constructed of concrete or other impervious material, and

     (b)  constructed in a manner that prevents random cracking.

(4)  Subsection (3) does not apply to bedding areas in loose housing barns,
or stalls in a free stall barn.

(5)  A dairy barn where cows are milked must

     (a)  have walls and ceilings that are hard, cleanable,
light-coloured and painted as required by an inspector,

     (b)  have stall platforms, gutters, floors, mangers and alleyways
constructed of concrete or other impervious material, in a manner that
prevents cracking,

     (c)  have manure gutters of sufficient size to contain manure
accumulated between cleanings,

     (d)  have gradients in stalls that permit complete drainage,

     (e)  be provided with light fixtures that are shielded so as to
prevent breaking glass from falling into open milk containers,

     (f)  be illuminated in a manner that permits the person carrying out
the milking to

               (i)  see the udders of the dairy animals during milking,
and

               (ii) perform the milking in a sanitary manner,

     and

     (g)  have, in a case where a liquid manure pit is located under or
adjacent to a dairy housing barn, ventilation for the liquid manure pit
that prevents the pit odours from entering the barn, milk house and milking
parlour.

(6)  Dairy barns must be kept free of pests.

(7)  A system that is satisfactory to an inspector must be provided for the
storage or disposal of manure and other wastes from the dairy barn.


     Milking Parlours

Milking parlour
14(1)  A milking parlour must

     (a)  be equipped with or have ready access to a pressurized hot and
cold running potable water system that is protected from any source of
contamination,

     (b)  be equipped with pipes, hoses and nozzles that are installed
and arranged in a manner that permits cleaning of the parlour and
equipment,

     (c)  be equipped with a ventilation system to eliminate condensation
and odours that may affect the organoleptic characteristics of the milk,

     (d)  be equipped with a heating system to prevent freezing,

     (e)  be illuminated in a manner that permits the person carrying out
the milking to

               (i)  see the udders of the dairy animals during milking,
and

               (ii) perform milking in a sanitary manner,

     (f)  have walls and ceilings that are

               (i)  covered with hard, smooth, washable,
light-coloured, waterproof material, and

               (ii) free of indentations, flaking, pitting and cracks,

     (g)  have the lower 15 cm of the walls, above floor level,
constructed of concrete or other impervious material, and

     (h)  be kept free of animals other than dairy animals that are
present for milking.

(2)  The floor, ramps and platforms of a milking parlour must

     (a)  be constructed of concrete or other impervious material,

     (b)  be maintained in good repair,

     (c)  be rounded at the intersection with the walls, and

     (d)  have covered drains, equipped with traps, that are sloped so as
to flow into a wastewater drainage system.

(3)  If a milking parlour is constructed as a part of a dairy barn it must
be located and maintained so that all equipment can be kept clean and free
of contamination, including stable odours.


     Milk Houses

Milk house purpose
15   A producer must have a milk house and must use it exclusively for

     (a)  cooling and storing milk and farm-separated cream, and

     (b)  cleaning, sanitizing and storing materials, milking equipment
and utensils used in the production and handling of milk and farm-separated
cream.


Milk house standards
16(1)  A milk house must be

     (a)  attached to, adjacent to or part of the dairy barn or milking
parlour, and

     (b)  of adequate size to accommodate the milking equipment and
utensils and provide the necessary working space.

(2)  A milk house must be

     (a)  fitted with self-closing doors where the milk house leads
directly into a dairy barn,

     (b)  located, constructed and maintained so as to prevent any
objectionable odours or pests from entering the milk house directly from a
milking parlour, barn or any other source, and

     (c)  accessible from an exterior entry point.

(3)  A milk house must have a floor of concrete or other impervious
material that

     (a)  is properly reinforced and constructed to prevent cracking,

     (b)  is maintained in good repair,

     (c)  slopes adequately to prevent pooling and drains to a properly
trapped, readily accessible covered floor drain that

               (i)  has a minimum diameter of 10 cm, and

               (ii) is not located under the bulk milk tank or bulk
milk tank outlet,

     and

     (d)  has a concrete or similarly impervious wall rising at least 15
cm above the floor level.

(4)  A milk house must

     (a)  be equipped with a pressurized hot and cold running potable
water system that

               (i)  has taps, pipes, hoses and nozzles installed and
arranged in a manner that permits cleaning of the milk house,

               (ii) is protected from any source of contamination to
the water, and

               (iii)     provides sufficient water to meet the operating
requirements of the milk house,

     (b)  be equipped with a ventilation system to eliminate condensation
and odours that may affect the organoleptic characteristics of the milk,

     (c)  be properly insulated and heated to prevent freezing,

     (d)  be illuminated in a manner that permits milk or farm-separated
cream handling operations and inspection, cleaning and sanitizing of the
premises and equipment to be carried out in a sanitary manner,

     (e)  be equipped with a dispenser containing individual towels,

     (f)  have walls and ceilings that are

               (i)  covered with hard, smooth, washable, light-coloured
and waterproof material, and

               (ii) free of indentations, flaking, pitting and cracks,

     and

     (g)  be kept free of pests.

(5)  Lights in a milk house that are directly above or near a bulk milk
tank must be protected by shatterproof covers or coatings.

(6)  All exterior doors, windows and openings of a milk house must be kept
closed or be fitted with screens or other devices to prevent the entry of
pests.


Cleansing standards
17(1)  A milk house must contain

     (a)  one or more sinks with concave bottoms for washing equipment,

     (b)  a separate sink for washing hands,

     (c)  the necessary materials for washing and drying hands, and

     (d)  cupboards, stands or shelves of non-corrosive material located
off the floor to hold the materials and equipment used in the production
and handling of milk or farm-separated cream.

(2)  All sinks referred to in subsection (1) must be drained by a pipe
equipped with a trap connected to a wastewater drainage system.

(3)  If a milk house is provided with a lavatory, the lavatory must 

     (a)  not open directly into the milk house working area, and

     (b)  be maintained in a clean and sanitary condition.


Storage of hazardous products
18(1)  All containers of detergents or sanitizers and all other cleaning
materials used in the production and handling of milk or farm-separated
cream that are stored in a milk house must be in a location and stored in a
manner that prevents contamination of the milk or farm-separated cream.

(2)  No pesticides, or other toxic products, other than those that are
directly related to the operation of a milk house, must be stored in a milk
house.

(3)  All veterinary drugs stored in a milk house must be kept in a cupboard
or refrigerator in a manner that prevents contamination of the milk and
farm-separated cream.


Hose port
19(1)  A milk house must be equipped with a hose port that

     (a)  is located at least 40 cm above the milk house floor,

     (b)  is not more than 15 cm in diameter, and

     (c)   is kept closed when not in use to prevent the entry of pests.

(2)  A milk house must have

     (a)  outside the milk house and directly below the hose port, a
concrete apron

               (i)  that is connected to the main entrance of the milk
house by a concrete walkway, and

               (ii) that is large enough so that the hose of the milk
transport vehicle cannot contact ground other than the concrete walkway,

     (b)  a grounded exterior electrical outlet adjacent to the hose port
and controlled by a bipolar switch located on the interior wall of the milk
house in a location accessible to the bulk milk grader, and

     (c)  a window in the milk house that permits the bulk milk grader to
observe the transfer pump compartment of the milk transport vehicle's tank
from inside the milk house.


Equipment
20(1)  When located in a milk house, the refrigeration compressor, water
heater and water pump must be installed and operated in a manner that does
not contaminate the milk.

(2)  A milk house must be equipped with a separate and adequately drained
and well maintained equipment room for the vacuum pumps.


     Bulk Milk Tanks

Bulk milk tank
21(1)  A producer must store all milk produced for sale for human
consumption in a bulk milk tank that meets the requirements of this
Regulation.

(2)  Subject to section 24(2), all bulk milk tanks must be located in the
milk house.

(3)  Despite subsection (1), a producer who produces only farm-separated
cream is not required to have a bulk milk tank in a milk house but must
have facilities for storing and cooling farm-separated cream so that the
farm-separated cream meets the requirements of Schedule 2.

(4)  Despite subsections (1) and (5), if a Director has approved direct
shipment to a dairy plant, a producer is not required to have a bulk milk
tank in the milk house.

(5)  A producer must have at least one bulk milk tank for each species of
dairy animal milked on the dairy farm.

(6)  A producer may place only milk in a bulk milk tank that is produced on
the producer's dairy farm.


Installation
22   No person shall install or permit the installation of a bulk milk tank
on a dairy farm unless the tank is first approved by an inspector.


Milk from approved tank
23   A processor may not accept milk from a bulk milk tank that the
processor knows or ought to know has not been approved under section 22.


Clearances
24(1)  A bulk milk tank in a milk house must be located so that there is

     (a)  sufficient clearance for inspection and sampling of the milk
and the removal of the dipstick, gauge or other measuring device,

     (b)  at least 90 cm clearance on the outlet side, the pouring side
and the sink side, and   

     (c)  at least 60 cm clearance on any remaining side.

(2)  Subsection (1)(c) does not apply to a bulk milk tank that is
bulkheaded where a portion of the tank extends beyond the milk house wall.


Standards
25(1)  A bulk milk tank must

     (a)  conform to 3-A Standards,

     (b)  be used exclusively for the storage and cooling of milk,

     (c)  have a capacity to hold at least 2.5 days of milk production by
the dairy animal herd during its peak production period,

     (d)  be equipped with a dipstick, gauge or other measuring device
authorized by the Director to permit determination of the volume of milk
contained in the tank on the basis of the calibration table bearing the
same serial number as the dipstick or gauge and the tank,

     (e)  have mechanical agitation capable of restoring uniformity of
all milk constituents throughout the tank without splashing or churning of
the milk,

     (f)  not use air agitation,

     (g)  be equipped with intermittent controlled agitation that
provides a minimum of 5 minutes of agitation every hour,

     (h)  be capable of cooling the milk and maintaining it at a
temperature of between 1øC and 4øC,

     (i)  have legs that are adjustable,

     (j)  be equipped with a thermometer in working order bearing
gradations from at least 0øC to 50øC and showing the temperature of the
milk contained in the tank to within +/-1øC, and

     (k)  be equipped with an outlet cap.

(2)  A bulk milk tank must be

     (a)  emptied at least once every 2 days, unless approval for a
longer period is granted by the Dairy Control Board on the recommendation
of the Director, and

     (b)  cleaned and sanitized each time it is emptied.

(3)  Despite subsection (1)(c), if there is more than one bulk milk tank on
a dairy farm, the combined capacity of the bulk milk tanks must be able to
hold at least 2.5 days of milk production by the dairy animal herd during
its peak production period.


Milk temperature
26(1)  The milk contained in a bulk milk tank on a dairy farm must be
maintained at a temperature of between 1øC and 4øC until collection.

(2)  The temperature prescribed for milk in subsection (1) must be achieved
in the following manner:

     (a)  the first milking placed in the bulk milk tank must be cooled
to 10øC or less within one hour after completion of milking and to between
1øC and 4øC within 2 hours after milking and maintained at that
temperature;

     (b)  the blend temperature, when subsequent milkings enter the tank,
may not rise to above 10øC and the milk must be cooled to between 1øC and
4øC within one hour after milking and maintained at that temperature.


Cream temperature
27   A producer of farm-separated cream must provide a cooling system
capable of maintaining the farm-separated cream at a temperature necessary
to achieve the acidity level set out in Schedule 2.


     Milk and Cream Handling Equipment

Equipment in contact with milk
28   The surfaces of materials and equipment that come into contact with
milk or farm-separated cream must be

     (a)  constructed of non-corrosive material,

     (b)  smooth and free of cavities, open seams and loose particles,

     (c)  non-toxic and resistant to damage by cleansers and sanitizers,

     (d)  unaffected by milk or farm-separated cream, and

     (e)  manufactured so as not to affect milk and farm-separated cream.


Equipment maintenance
29   All equipment used to handle, store or transport milk or
farm-separated cream must be

     (a)  kept clean,

     (b)  installed and maintained in accordance with the manufacturer's
instructions,

     (c)  maintained in working order, and

     (d)  used only for the purposes of collecting, cooling, holding and
transferring milk or farm-separated cream.


Milk handling equipment
30(1)  No person shall install or permit the installation of milking or
milk handling equipment on a dairy farm unless the equipment conforms to
3-A Standards and is installed in accordance with 3-A Standards.

(2)  No producer shall use or permit the use of milking or milk handling
equipment that does not comply with subsection (1).

(3)  If an inspector discovers milking or milk handling equipment that does
not comply with subsection (1), is beyond repair or is otherwise unsuitable
for the purpose intended, the inspector may request the producer to cease
using the equipment, and the producer must comply.


     Milking Operations

Cleanliness, maintenance
31   The premises, materials and equipment of the dairy barn, holding area,
milking parlour and milk house must be kept clean and maintained in good
repair.


Staff
32(1)  A person who is conducting a milking operation must

     (a)  wash hands and dry them with single-service towels to ensure
that the hands are clean and dry during milking,

     (b)  wear clean clothing, and

     (c)  in a case where the person has an open lesion, wear a
waterproof covering that prevents contamination of the milk or
farm-separated cream.

(2)  No person infected with or carrying a communicable disease that may be
transmitted through the milk or farm-separated cream may work in a capacity
that involves the production, handling, storage or transportation of milk
or farm-separated cream.


Single species milk
33   No person may mix milk from more than one animal species in the same
bulk milk tank.


Milking
34(1)  A producer must ensure that the flanks, udders and tails of the
producer's dairy animals are kept clean and free of mud and manure.

(2)  A teat dip solution used to sanitize teats must be approved for that
purpose under the Food and Drugs Act (Canada).

(3)  A producer must have posted procedures for the milking equipment
sanitation program and ensure that they are followed.


Milking equipment sanitation
35   Equipment and utensils that come into contact with the milk during
milking must be

     (a)  rinsed, washed, rinsed and drained within one hour after use,

     (b)  stored, when not in use, in a manner that prevents
contamination, and

     (c)  sanitized and drained immediately before use.


Cleansers
36(1)  Detergents, sanitizers, pesticides and other pest control products
used in a dairy barn must be those approved by the Director.

(2)  All detergents, sanitizers, pesticides and other pest control products
must be kept in their original labelled containers or kept in containers
that are labelled to ensure easy identification of the types of products.


     Care of Dairy Animals

Housing
37(1)  Animals whose milk is intended for human consumption must be kept
clean and free of diseases transmittable to humans by milk.

(2)  A dairy barn may not be used to house animals other than the species
of the dairy animals being kept for the purpose of milking.

(3)  If more than one dairy species is maintained on the same dairy farm,

     (a)  dairy ewes must be kept in separate buildings from other dairy
species,

     (b)  dairy species other than dairy ewes may be kept in separate
areas of the same building, and

     (c)  milking, collection, storage and transfer equipment must be
operated so that mixing of the milk among dairy animal species is
prevented.

(4)  In a dairy barn, young dairy animals must be kept in separate pens or
box stalls when housed in the same facility as the milking herd.

(5)  In dairy goat operations, all bucks must be housed separately from the
rest of the herd in order to prevent odour contamination of the milk.


Drugs
38(1)  Only drugs or products approved for administration to dairy animals
under the Food and Drugs Act (Canada), the Feeds Act (Canada), the Pest
Control Products Act (Canada) and any applicable provincial enactment may
be administered to a dairy animal as set out in the product label.

(2)  A producer must identify treated animals and maintain a written record
for at least one year of all drug and product use.

(3)  A processor who receives milk from a producer, an inspector and the
Director may examine the records referred to in subsection (2) during the
producer's regular working hours.


     Milk Handling and Transport

Licence required
39  No person shall receive milk from a bulk milk tank unless the person is
a bulk milk grader. 


Milk collection
40(1)  A bulk milk grader must

     (a)  wear clean clothing while performing any activities, duties or
functions under this Regulation,

     (b)  not be infected with or carry any communicable disease that is
transmitted through milk, and

     (c)  wear a waterproof covering over any open lesion so that the
milk is not contaminated.

(2)  A bulk milk grader shall not collect milk from a bulk milk tank if

     (a)  the milk in the tank has been seized or placed under detention
by an inspector under section 11 of the Act, 

     (b)  the producer has been prohibited from shipping milk by an
inspector under section 11 of the Act,

     (c)  the producer does not hold a producer licence, in good
standing, issued by the Dairy Board, or

     (d)  the milk contained in the bulk milk tank is not acceptable on
the basis of its appearance, odour, temperature or other observable
abnormalities.

(3)  A bulk milk grader, when collecting milk at a dairy farm, must

     (a)  ensure that hands are clean before handling or touching
equipment,

     (b)  measure the volume of milk contained in the producer's bulk
milk tank,

     (c)  clearly identify samples as required by the Director,

     (d)  take a representative sample of milk from each bulk milk tank
to conduct tests for the purposes of the Act and the Dairy Board Act

               (i)  by means of a mechanical sampler on the milk
transport vehicle, or

               (ii) directly from the producer's bulk milk tank using a
sanitized dipper rinsed in the milk prior to sampling, pipette or other
sanitary sampling device, following agitation of the milk contained in the
tank for at least 5 minutes or as otherwise required by the Director to
assure homogeneity of the milk,

     and

     (e)  record on a collection report all information required by the
processor, the Director and the Dairy Board.

(4)  A bulk milk grader must use the hose port when transferring milk from
a bulk milk tank to a milk transportation tank.

(5)  A bulk milk grader must completely empty the bulk milk tank every time
any milk is removed, other than for samples, and the bulk milk grader must
ensure that the tank is immediately rinsed.

(6)  A bulk milk grader must deliver samples of milk taken under this
section to a processor who must deliver

     (a)  a sample to an approved laboratory at least 4 times a month in
accordance with the timetable of the approved laboratory, and

     (b)  any additional sample requested by an inspector or analyst.


     Milk Transport Vehicles

Milk transport vehicles required
41   Milk transport vehicles may be used only for the transportation of
milk, farm-separated cream or potable water unless otherwise authorized by
the Director.


Tank standards
42(1)  The owner of a milk transport vehicle must ensure that the milk
transportation tank and related equipment conform to 3-A Standards and this
section.

(2)  On a milk transport vehicle, the inner wall of the milk transportation
tank and any equipment that comes into contact with milk, and any container
used for the transportation of farm-separated cream, must be

     (a)  constructed of non-corrosive material, and manufactured in such
a manner as not to affect milk or farm-separated cream,

     (b)  smooth and free of cavities and loose particles, and

     (c)  non-toxic and resistant to damage from cleansers and
sanitizers.

(3)  The milk transportation tank of a milk transport vehicle must be

     (a)  insulated so that the temperature of the milk cannot rise more
than 2øC in 24 hours, and

     (b)  equipped with a sufficient number of spray balls to allow for
proper cleaning.

(4)  The milk transportation tank and related equipment of the milk
transport vehicle must be cleaned and sanitized at least once a day in a
manner that prevents contamination of the milk.

(5)  If more than one shipment is collected in one day in a milk transport
vehicle, the pump, hoses and fittings of the milk transport vehicle must be
washed between shipments.

(6)  The outer wall of the milk transportation tank of a milk transport
vehicle must be constructed of hard, smooth, non-corrosive, washable,
waterproof material.

(7)  A milk transport vehicle must be equipped with a compartment to store
the hose, pump and any other equipment used in the transfer of milk to
protect them from any source of contamination.


     PART 3

     SAMPLES, TESTING, STANDARDS AND GRADES

     Milk and Cream Quality Standards

Milk, cream standards
43   If a producer's milk or farm-separated cream does not meet the
requirements of Schedule 2, the milk may be rejected or down-graded in
accordance with this Regulation.


Saleable milk
44(1)  No person shall sell milk for human consumption that

     (a)  comes from an animal 15 days before and 3 days after
parturition, or any longer periods that are necessary to ensure that the
milk is free of colostrum,

     (b)  contains blood, coagulation or other foreign particles,

     (c)  has odours that adversely affect its organoleptic
characteristics, or

     (d)  is contaminated.

(2)  Raw milk, farm-separated cream or a product produced from raw milk or
farm-separated cream may be sold only to a dairy plant.

(3)  Subsection (2) does not apply to cheese that has been manufactured in
compliance with the Food and Drugs Act (Canada).


Samples
45   A processor must provide samples of milk for testing as required by
the Act, this Regulation, the Director, an inspector or an analyst at an
approved laboratory.


Testing
46(1)  A sample of milk taken for testing must be taken in an aseptic
manner and be maintained at a temperature between 1øC and 4øC.

(2)  The methods used to analyse milk and farm-separated cream to determine
compliance with this Regulation must be those recognized by Health Canada,
the International Dairy Federation or the National Liaison Group on Milk
Product Quality or those methods described in the most recent Standard
Methods for the Examination of Dairy Products published by the American
Public Health Association or the Official Methods of Analysis published by
the Association of Official Analytical Chemists, as amended or replaced
from time to time.

(3)  Except as is otherwise provided by this Regulation,

     (a)  an analyst who tests a dairy product by chemical, physical or
microbiological analysis must conduct the test in accordance with the
standard methods at an approved laboratory and report the results in
accordance with the standard methods to the persons required by this
Regulation or the Director, and

     (b)  a person who takes, identifies or transports samples for the
purpose of an analysis referred to in clause (a) must do so in accordance
with the standard methods.


     Milk Grading

Grade tests
47(1)  The grade of a producer's milk that is received by a processor must
be determined monthly by testing by an analyst in an approved laboratory.

(2)  For the purposes of this section, milk is received when it is
transferred from a bulk milk tank to a milk transport vehicle.


Grading
48(1)  For the purpose of determining the grade of a producer's milk, an
infraction has occurred each time that a producer's milk

     (a)  does not meet the requirements of Schedule 2 for bacteria
count, drug residues or freezing point, or

     (b)  does not meet the requirements of Schedule 2 for somatic cell
count during the current month, if the milk exceeded the somatic cell count
requirement in each of the 2 preceding months and no infraction of that
requirement was deemed to have occurred in either of the 2 preceding
months.

(2)  A producer's raw milk must be graded with respect to a particular
month as

     (a)  Grade 1 if there is no infraction during that month,

     (b)  Grade 2 if there is one infraction with respect to bacteria
count, freezing point or somatic cell count during the month but there were
no infractions in the preceding 365 days,

     (c)  Grade 3 if

               (i)  there is one infraction with respect to drug
residues during the current month but there were no infractions in the
preceding 365 days, or

               (ii) there were 2 infractions in the preceding 365 days
and at least one of the infractions occurred during the current month,

     (d)  Grade 4 if there were 3 infractions in the 365-day period and
at least one of the infractions occurred during the current month,

     (e)  Grade 5 if there were 4 infractions in the 365-day period and
at least one of the infractions occurred during the current month, or

     (f)  Grade 6 if there were 5 or more infractions in the 365-day
period and at least one of the infractions occurred during the current
month.


Grade adjustments
49(1)  The gross producer returns must be adjusted by the processor for the
month in which an infraction under section 48 occurs according to the
following grade schedule:

     (a)  Grade 1 - 100% of the gross producer returns;

     (b)  Grade 2 - 100% of the gross producer returns with a warning
letter;

     (c)  Grade 3 - 95% of the gross producer returns;

     (d)  Grade 4 - 92.5% of the gross producer returns;

     (e)  Grade 5 - 90% of the gross producer returns;

     (f)  Grade 6 - 85% of the gross producer returns.

(2)  If a producer is subject to a grade price adjustment under subsection
(1), the processor to whom the producer delivers milk must deduct the
appropriate adjustment fees from the gross producer returns and pay the
amount deducted to the Dairy Board on or before the 15th day after the end
of the month in which the infraction occurred.


Drug residue  ramifications
50(1)  A processor that uses any shipment of milk from a producer that is
found, when tested in accordance with this Regulation, to contain a drug
residue must pay to the Dairy Board the gross producer return in respect of
that shipment that is withheld from the producer under the Dairy Board
Regulation (AR 207/96) on or before the 15th day after the end of the month
in which the shipment was received.

(2)  If a shipment of milk is rejected by a processor because of a positive
drug residue test conducted in accordance with this Regulation on a sample
taken from the shipment at the dairy plant, the processor must ensure that
the gross producer returns of the producers whose milk in the shipment
yielded negative drug residue tests are not adjusted because of the
positive drug residue test results for the shipment and, subject to
subsection (3), the Dairy Board must reimburse the processor for those
payments from the grade price adjustment fees received by the Dairy Board
under section 49(2).

(3)  Notwithstanding subsection (2), if none of the producer samples in a
shipment of milk rejected under subsection (2) test positive in a drug
residue test conducted in accordance with this Regulation, the Dairy Board
is not liable to reimburse the processor for payments made by the plant
under subsection (2) in respect of the milk.

(4)  A processor shall not pay a producer in respect of milk that does not
meet the requirements of Schedule 2 with respect to drug residues.

(5)  If a test of a producer's milk indicates the milk does not meet the
requirements of Schedule 2 with respect to drug residues,

     (a)  the producer shall not sell, supply or offer for sale milk to
be used or processed for human consumption, and

     (b)  a processor shall not accept milk from the producer

until the milk meets the requirements of Schedule 2 with respect to drug
residues.

(6)  If a producer's milk is found by analysis at a dairy plant to not meet
the requirements of Schedule 2 with respect to drug residues, the processor
at that dairy plant must ensure that the sample is submitted to an approved
laboratory for confirmation of the results.

(7)  If a shipment of milk is found by analysis at a dairy plant to not
meet the requirements of Schedule 2 with respect to drug residues and is
rejected for that reason, the processor at that dairy plant must ensure
that the shipment sample is submitted to an approved laboratory for
confirmation of the results.

(8)  The Director may specify the tests that may be used for confirmation
of the results with respect to drug residues to determine compliance with
Schedule 2.


Bacteria ramifications
51(1)  If a producer's milk tested in accordance with this Regulation is
found to contain in excess of 1 000 000 bacteria per millilitre,

     (a)  the producer shall not sell, supply or offer for sale milk to
be used or processed for human consumption, and

     (b)  a processor shall not accept milk from the producer,

until authorized to do so by an inspector.

(2)  A processor may reject milk that arrives at the dairy plant at a
temperature higher than 6øC.


Freezing point ramifications
52   If a producer's milk is found to have a freezing point of -0.514ø
Hortvet or higher, the producer shall not sell, supply or offer for sale
milk to be used or processed for human consumption until a sample testing
-0.530ø Hortvet or lower is obtained or the producer is authorized to do so
by an inspector.


Cleanliness ramifications
53(1)  If an inspector finds that a producer's milking or milk handling
equipment is contaminated or that the producer's premises are unclean, the
inspector may notify the producer in writing of that finding and, on
receiving a notification, the producer may not supply milk to a dairy plant
or to any other person for human consumption until the producer eliminates
the contaminated or unclean condition to the satisfaction of the inspector.

(2)  A processor shall not accept milk from a producer if the processor
knows or ought to know that the producer has received a notification under
subsection (1).


Testing milk
54   An approved laboratory must use the standard methods when conducting
tests for the purposes of the Act and this Regulation.


     PART 4

     PROCESSING

Processor duties
55   A processor must ensure that this Part is complied with and must
maintain and operate all parts of a dairy plant, including the equipment,
in a safe and sanitary manner and ensure that the dairy plant meets the
requirements of the Act, this Regulation and the Dairy Board Act.


     Construction, Layout and Operation
     of Dairy Plants

Plant land
56   The land occupied by a dairy plant must meet the following
requirements:

     (a)  the access routes and traffic areas must be constructed with a
dense material, to eliminate dust and mud;

     (b)  the land surrounding the dairy plant must be free of waste and
refuse and of any other source that could contaminate  dairy products
produced at the dairy plant.


Plant standards
57   The dairy plant must meet the following requirements:

     (a)  the floors must be

               (i)  made of a hard, washable and waterproof material,
and be rounded at the intersections with the walls in order to prevent any
accumulation of water or dirt,

               (ii) free of indentations, cracks and crevices,

               (iii)     inclined toward the drains so as to prevent the
accumulation of liquids, and

               (iv) provided with a wastewater drainage system that
includes devices for preventing the contamination of the facilities by
pests and odours;

     (b)  the walls and ceilings must be

               (i)  covered with a hard, smooth, washable and
waterproof material, and

               (ii) free of indentations, pitting, cracks and flaking;

     (c)  doors, windows and any other openings to the exterior must be
kept closed or have screens or other devices to prevent pests from entering
the dairy plant.


Dairy plant water system
58(1)  The dairy plant must have hot and cold pressurized running water and
soap for the washing of hands, with equipment for drying and disinfecting
hands.

(2)  The dairy plant must have hot and cold running potable water under
pressure, with pipes and nozzles installed and arranged in a way that
facilitates the cleaning of the facilities and equipment.

(3)  The dairy plant must have a drainage system for wastewater that
separates the floor wastewater from the sewage wastewater until the
wastewater leaves the dairy plant, and includes an inspection hole, flush
mechanisms, drainage siphons, protection grids and a solid matter
interceptor.

(4)  The drainage system for a dairy plant's washing water must be separate
from the sanitary drains for the toilets, urinals and sinks.

(5)  The washroom facilities of a dairy plant must

     (a)  have hot and cold running potable water under pressure, and
equipment for cleaning and drying hands, and

     (b)  not lead directly into the dairy product handling areas.


Dairy plant lighting
59(1)  The dairy plant must have a lighting system that facilitates the
performance of dairy product handling operations and cleaning and
sanitizing operations.

(2)  The lighting system in a dairy plant must be equipped with mechanisms
to avoid the contamination of dairy products in the event of breakage of
any elements of the lighting system.


Ventilation
60   The dairy plant must be equipped with a ventilation system that will
vent condensation, vapours and odours to the exterior of the dairy plant.


Refrigeration
61   Refrigerated rooms for the storage of dairy products in a dairy plant
must

     (a)  be kept in a clean and sanitary condition,

     (b)  be operated at a temperature required by this Regulation for
the dairy products stored in them, and

     (c)  not be used for the storage of materials that may have a
deleterious effect on the quality of the dairy products stored in them.


Contamination prevention
62(1)  Supplies used in the processing, packing, storing, transporting or
marketing of dairy products must be protected at all times from
contamination of any kind, and must be stored in a clean, dry room.

(2)   Chemicals used or stored in a dairy plant must be clearly marked and
stored separately from dairy products and supplies to be used in processing
dairy products.


     Thermal Processing

Pasteurization
63(1)  Subject to subsection (3), a processor shall not sell dairy products
unless they have been pasteurized in accordance with Schedule 1.

(2)  A dairy product that has been treated by UHT and aseptically packaged
and a dairy product that has been sterilized in the container must be
commercially sterile.

(3)  Subsection (1) does not apply to cheese that has been manufactured in
compliance with the Food and Drugs Act (Canada).


Pasteurization equipment
64(1)  A processor must ensure that

     (a)  all pasteurization equipment, including UHT processors, is
designed, constructed and operated to ensure the pasteurization of dairy
products;

     (b)  all batch pasteurizers, HTST pasteurizers and UHT pasteurizers
meet the requirements set out in this section;

     (c)  temperature recording charts are retained at the dairy plant
for not less than 12 months and contain the following information:

               (i)  the name of the dairy plant;

               (ii) the date that the pasteurization took place;

               (iii)     the pasteurizer or recorder number;

               (iv) the temperature of pasteurization as shown by the
indicating thermometer at a reference point during the holding period;

               (v)  the name and signature of the pasteurizer operator;

               (vi) the dairy products processed;

               (vii)     whether the flow diversion valve position was in
forward flow or divert;

               (viii)    the cut-in and cut-out temperature recorded
daily by the operator at the beginning of the run;

     (d)  HTST pasteurizers used in the dairy plant are designed so that
when in operation

               (i)  the flow diversion valve does not operate in
forward flow unless the temperature of the dairy product being pasteurized
equals or exceeds that required for its proper pasteurization, and

               (ii) the dairy product pressure in the pasteurized side
of the regenerator is at least 7 kPa greater than the product pressure in
the side of the regenerator containing the non-pasteurized dairy product.

(2)  A processor must ensure that the HTST pasteurizer

     (a)  is timed and sealed at least once every 12 months by a method
approved by the Director,

     (b)  has the accuracy, described in subsection (4), of the
indicating and recording thermometers determined when the unit is timed,

     (c)  is retimed forthwith after any repairs are made to it or the
capacity of it is altered, and

     (d)  is sealed in a manner satisfactory to the Director.

(3)  A processor must ensure that the recording thermometer on a
pasteurizer is checked daily with the indicating thermometer at the
pasteurization temperature and adjusted if necessary, so that the reading
of the recording thermometer is at no time higher than that shown by the
indicating thermometer.

(4)  A processor must ensure that the thermometers are accurate throughout
the specified pasteurization temperature range, as set out in Schedule 1,

     (a)  within 0.5øC plus or minus for indicating thermometers, and

     (b)  within 1.0øC plus or minus for recording thermometers.

(5)  A processor must ensure that the recording thermometer shows no loss
or gain of recorded elapsed time as indicated by chart rotation over a
period of 30 minutes at pasteurization temperatures.

(6)  A processor must ensure that

     (a)  all batch pasteurizers are equipped with

               (i)  indicating and recording thermometers,

               (ii) valves of close coupled and leak protector type
with stops or equivalent valves when connected to other processing
equipment,

               (iii)     mechanical agitation that is continuously
maintained throughout the heating and holding operations, and

               (iv) covers to prevent contamination;

     (b)  during the holding operation, the airspace temperature in the
batch pasteurizers is at least 3øC above the minimum product pasteurization
temperature as set out in Schedule 1;

     (c)  all HTST pasteurizers are equipped with

               (i)  a recording thermometer,

               (ii) a constant level tank,

               (iii)     a regeneration section,

               (iv) a flow control device,

               (v)  a heating section,

               (vi) a holding device,

               (vii)     a sensing chamber,

               (viii)    a safety thermal limit recorder,

               (ix) an indicating thermometer,

               (x)  a flow diversion device,

               (xi) a pressure differential controller or pressure
switch if a booster pump is used,

               (xii)     a cooling section, where applicable,

               (xiii)    a vacuum breaker, and

               (xiv)     components that ensure that the pasteurized dairy
product in the regeneration section will, at all times, be at a pressure
greater than the pressure of the unpasteurized dairy product in the same
regeneration section;

     (d)  all UHT pasteurizers are equipped with

               (i)  a constant level tank,

               (ii) a regeneration section, where applicable,

               (iii)     a flow control device,

               (iv) a heating section,

               (v)  a holding section,

               (vi) an indicating thermometer,

               (vii)     a temperature recording device,

               (viii)    a divert flow controller,

               (ix) a divert flow indicator,

               (x)  a cooling section, where applicable, and

               (xi) a flow diversion device;

     (e)  any auxiliary equipment is not installed or operated in
conjunction with an HTST pasteurizer so as to

               (i)  reduce the holding time below the minimum
temperature required by this Regulation,

               (ii) influence the required pressure relationships
within the generator, or

               (iii)     function as a flow promoting device, unless it is
interwired with the flow control device.


Required temperatures
65(1)  Milk and farm-separated cream must be cooled to 4øC immediately
after pasteurization.

(2)  In the case of batch pasteurization, the cooling referred to in
subsection (1) must be accomplished within one hour.

(3)  All dairy products requiring refrigeration, including cheeses with a
moisture content of 36% or higher, must be kept at a temperature that is
not less than 1øC nor higher than 4øC.

(4)  Frozen dairy products while in a dairy plant must be stored at a
temperature not exceeding -18øC.

(5)  A processor must ensure that this section is complied with and that
all temperature-indicating devices used in the pasteurization,
refrigeration or freezing facilities, or the storage of dairy products, are
accurate and maintained in working order.


Records
66  A processor must maintain a complete and accurate record of the
temperature used in pasteurization for each lot of pasteurized dairy
product for the greater of

     (a)  one year, and

     (b)  the expiry date marked on the dairy product label.


Washing, sanitizing
67   A processor must ensure that

     (a)  facilities for washing and sanitizing the pumps, hoses and
fittings of milk transportation tanks, including a concrete pad of adequate
size, are provided in the milk receiving area of the dairy plant, and

     (b)  facilities or other arrangements satisfactory to an inspector
for washing and sanitizing the milk transportation tanks are provided.


     Employees and Visitors

Employees
68   A processor must ensure that all workers who work at the dairy plant
are trained and competent to carry out their assigned duties or functions
and hold appropriate licences, if any, from the Director authorizing them
to carry out those functions in a dairy plant.


Hygiene standards
69(1)  Entry to the processing, manufacturing, reprocessing, packing and
repacking areas of a dairy plant must be restricted to personnel authorized
by the processor.

(2)  A processor must follow sanitary practices and require all workers in
the dairy plant and visitors to the dairy plant to comply with those
practices in order to ensure the sanitary processing of dairy products.

(3)  The dairy plant and its material and equipment must be kept clean.

(4)  The workers at a dairy plant must

     (a)  wear work apparel that shows dirt easily, and that has no
pockets or buttons above the waist,

     (b)  wear a head covering or a hairnet and beard-cover in order to
completely cover the hair while working in the dairy plant,

     (c)  change clothing before moving from a high potential
cross-contamination area to a lower potential area,

     (d)  ensure that watches and jewellery are not worn within the dairy
product handling areas, and

     (e)  be properly trained for the duties being performed.

(5)  Tobacco may not be used and food and drink may not be consumed within 

     (a)  the dairy product handling areas, 

     (b)  the dairy product equipment cleaning facilities area, or 

     (c)  the areas for the storage of dairy products and supplies to be
used in processing dairy products

of a dairy plant.

(6)  Dairy products may be handled in a dairy plant only by

     (a)  a person who does not have a communicable disease at an
infectious stage, or who does not have an infected sore or wound,

     (b)  a person who is not a carrier of pathogens that could
contaminate dairy products, and

     (c)  a person who, if that person has an open sore, is wearing a
waterproof protection on the wound that prevents contamination of the dairy
products and of ingredients or surfaces with which the dairy products come
into contact.

(7)  A processor must ensure that there is an effective pest control
program that prevents the entry of pests into and eliminates pests from the
dairy plant.

(8)  Waste, garbage and refuse of any kind in a dairy plant must be
deposited in impermeable containers that

     (a)  are made of a material that is washable and unaffected by
disinfectants,

     (b)  have tight-fitting covers that will not detach when opened, and

     (c)  are properly identified and kept clean.

(9)  Waste containers must be taken to the main waste area or compartment
at the end of the daily operations or if they become full during the course
of daily operations.

(10)  Waste must be managed so that the dairy products handling facilities
and equipment are not contaminated, and there is no risk of contamination
of the potable water supply.


Diseased people
70   A processor shall not permit any person who has a disease that is
transmittable through dairy products to enter areas where dairy products
are processed in the dairy plant.


     Dairy Plant Operations

Allowable milk
71(1)  All raw milk delivered to a dairy plant must

     (a)  meet the drug residue requirements of Schedule 2,

     (b)  have been produced on a dairy farm by a licensed producer, and

     (c)  have been transported in a milk transport vehicle that meets
the requirements of this Regulation.

(2)  A processor must ensure that samples are taken from each milk
transport vehicle when milk is delivered to a dairy plant, and the
processor must test the samples for drug residue in accordance with this
Regulation.

(3)  The processor of the milk tested for drug residues under subsection
(2) is responsible for the cost of the tests.


Storage
72   A processor must ensure that all dairy products at the dairy plant are
stored so that they are protected from being contaminated or rendered unfit
for human consumption.


Non-milk ingredients
73(1)  A processor must ensure that all non-milk ingredients and supplies
used in the processing of dairy products

     (a)  conform to the requirements of the Food and Drugs Act (Canada),
and

     (b)  are protected from contamination.

(2)  All raw materials and ingredients for use in processing dairy products
must be intended for human consumption and, before they are used, they must
be stored so as not to be contaminated.

(3)  Containers of raw materials and ingredients must be labelled to
identify the raw materials and ingredients they contain.


Equipment requirements
74   A processor must ensure that all equipment used in a dairy plant is

     (a)  designed, constructed, installed and operated in accordance
with the requirements of this Regulation, and

     (b)  cleaned after use and sanitized before being reused.


Operation requirements
75(1)  A processor must ensure that all equipment used in the processing of
dairy products is designed, constructed, installed and operated to ensure
that there is no contamination of pasteurized dairy products by any other
product.

(2)  The surfaces of the materials and equipment that come into contact
with dairy products must be

     (a)  made of non-corrosive material,

     (b)  smooth and have no crevices or loose parts,

     (c)  non-toxic and of a type suitable for cleaning and disinfecting
operations,

     (d)  unaffected by the dairy products, and be constructed so that
they do not alter the characteristics of the dairy products, and

     (e)  free of components or residue that may contaminate dairy
products.

(3)  Steam introduced directly into dairy products or that comes into
direct contact with the surfaces of dairy product processing equipment must
be from potable water and be free of harmful substances.

(4)  The materials and equipment that come into contact with dairy products
must be cleaned at the end of the dairy plant's daily operations, and must
be sanitized immediately before use and every time they are contaminated.

(5)  Despite subsection (4), if a dairy plant operates 24 hours a day, the
materials and equipment that come into contact with dairy products must be
cleaned and sanitized in a manner satisfactory to the Canadian Food
Inspection Agency.

(6)  Non-metallic materials must be used when hand cleaning equipment and
utensils.

(7)  The equipment and utensils constructed by assembly other than by
welding must be removable, and each of the components of the equipment and
utensils must be accessible so as to allow cleaning, sanitizing and
inspection.


Hazardous agents
76(1)  All cleaning agents, disinfectants, insecticides, pesticides and
other methods of fighting pests must conform to the requirements of the
Canadian Food Inspection Agency and applicable provincial enactments.

(2)  Subject to subsection (3), all cleaning agents, disinfectants,
insecticides, pesticides and other products used to fight pests must be
stored in an enclosed area or compartment outside the dairy products
handling areas and the containers for these products must be labelled to
identify what they contain.

(3)  If, as part of the dairy product processing, it is necessary to make
constant use of a cleaning agent, disinfectant, insecticide or pesticide,
then the containers for them must be identified as being for daily use and
may be stored in an enclosed compartment located inside the dairy products
handling areas.


Product identification
77   A processor must establish and implement written procedures so that
any lot of a dairy product can be identified and traced from the dairy
plant where the milk was processed to where the dairy product is sold at
the retail level.


     Sampling, Testing and Standards
     of Dairy Products

Bacterial standards
78   Dairy products may not contain pathogens or microbial toxins except as
provided for in Schedule 3.


Pasteurized milk standard
79   Pasteurized fluid milk products

     (a)  must meet the freezing point and drug residue requirements of
Schedule 2, and

     (b)  must have a negative milk phosphatase level as determined by a
method described in the standard methods.


     PART 5

     WRITTEN NOTICE

Giving notice
80   If a written notice is required to be given under the Act, the notice
is sufficiently given if

     (a)  it is left with a person apparently over the age of 18 years at
the dwelling or milk house or dairy plant of the person who is intended to
be served,

     (b)  it is posted in a conspicuous place in the milk house or on the
bulk milk tank of the person who is intended to be served,

     (c)  it is sent by telecopier to the fax number, last known to the
Director, of the person intended to be served

               (i)  if the person gave that fax number to the Director
for the purpose of receiving written notices under the Act, and

               (ii) if the person sending the notice receives
notification that the notice was sent to the fax number, or

     (d)  it is sent by e-mail to the e-mail address, last known to the
Director, of the person intended to be served

               (i)  if the person gave that e-mail address to the
Director for the purpose of receiving written notices under the Act, and

               (ii) if the person sending the notice gets confirmation
that the notice was sent to the e-mail address.


     PART 6

     REPEALS, EXPIRY AND COMING INTO FORCE

Repeals
81   The Dairy Industry Regulation (AR 131/88) and the Licence and Service
Fee Regulation (AR 221/91) are repealed.


Expiry
82   For the purpose of ensuring that this Regulation is reviewed for
ongoing relevancy and necessity, with the option that it may be repassed in
its present or an amended form following a review, this Regulation expires
on July 31, 2004.


Coming into force
83   This Regulation comes into force on August 1, 1999.


    

     SCHEDULE 1

     MINIMUM THERMAL PROCESSING PARAMETERS
     FOR BATCH AND HTST PASTEURIZERS


Product
Pasteurization Type
Time
Temperature


Milk Based Products - below 10% MF
     Batch/Vat
30 min.
63øC


Milk Based Products - below 10% MF
     HTST
16 sec.
72øC


Milk Based Products - 10% MF or higher, or added sugar (fluid cream,
chocolate milk, flavoured milk)
     Batch/Vat
30 min.
66øC


Milk Based Products - 10% MF or higher, or added sugar (fluid cream,
chocolate milk, flavoured milk)
     HTST
16 sec.
75øC


Frozen Dairy Product Mixes, Egg Nog
     Batch/Vat
30 min.
69øC


Frozen Dairy Product Mixes, Egg Nog
     HTST
25 sec.
16 sec.
80øC
83øC




     SCHEDULE 2 

     STANDARDS FOR
     RAW MILK AND FARM-SEPARATED CREAM



PRODUCT
PARAMETER
STANDARD


Raw milk
Temperature
1øC to 4øC for milk contained in the bulk milk tank (in accordance with
section 26)



Total living mesophyllic aerobic bacteria count
Producer:   maximum 50 000 total living mesophyllic aerobic bacteria per ml




Somatic cells
Cow's milk:   maximum 500 000 somatic cells per ml
Goat's milk:   maximum 1 500 000 somatic cells per ml



Drug residues
Drug residues as determined by tests approved by the National Liaison Group
on Milk Quality must meet the requirements of the Maximum Residue Levels
prescribed by the Food and Drugs Act (Canada)



Freezing point
Maximum:  -0.530ø H for cow's milk


Farm-separated cream
Acidity
Unacceptable if greater than 0.6% lactic acid.



Drug residues
Drug residues as determined by tests approved by the National Liaison Group
on Milk Quality must meet the requirements of the Maximum Residue Levels
prescribed by the Food and Drugs Act (Canada)



Frequency of testing
Every pickup





     SCHEDULE 3
     BACTERIA STANDARDS FOR DAIRY PRODUCTS *


     Product
     Bacteria
n
c
     m
     M


Cheese (pasteurized milk)
Staphylococcus aureus
Escherichia coli
5

5
2

2
     100

     100
10 000 (/g)

  1000 (/g)


Cheese (unpasteurized milk)
Staphylococcus aureus
Escherichia coli
5

5
2

2
     100

     100
10 000 (/g)

  1000 (/g)


Cheese (pasteurized) without ripening, including fresh cheeses, lactic curd
with a minimum of 50% moisture
Coliform
5
2
     10
    100 (/g)



Fermented dairy products (eg. Buttermilk, yogurt, sour cream)
Coliform
5
2
     100
100 (/g or ml)


Pasteurized milk, cream and other non-fermented dairy products
Mesophyllic aerobic bacteria (32øC) 
Coliform
5


5
2


2
     10 000


     1
25 000 (/ml)

     10 (/g)


Frozen dairy products
Mesophyllic aerobic bacteria (32øC) 
Coliform   **
5


5
2


2
     10 000


     10
50 000 (/ml)

  100 (/ml)


Butter
Mesophyllic aerobic bacteria (32øC) 
Coliform
5


5
2


2
10 000


     10
50 000 (/g)


  100 (/g)


Milk powders and other dairy product powders
Mesophyllic aerobic bacteria (32øC) 
Coliform
5


5
2


2
10 000


     10
50 000 (/g)


  100 (/g)


Evaporated, sweetened and condensed milk
Staphylococcus aureus
Escherichia coli


must be comm-ercially sterile
must be com-mercially sterile


n   =     number of sample units (subsamples) to be examined per lot   ***
c   =     maximum number of sample units (subsamples) per lot that may have a
bacterial concentration higher than the value for "m" without contravening
this Regulation
m  = maximum number of bacteria per g or ml of product that is of no
concern (acceptable level of contamination)
M =  maximum number of bacteria per g or ml of product, that if exceeded
by any one sample unit (subsample) renders the lot in violation of this
Regulation

*      The bacterial standards are to be met at the dairy plant.
**    Does not apply to frozen yogurt or other frozen fermented dairy
products.
***  This sampling plan is an obligation of the regulators.  Processors may
have their own sampling plan.


     ------------------------------

     Alberta Regulation 140/99

     Municipal Government Act

     LAC STE. ANNE REGIONAL WASTE MANAGEMENT SERVICES
     COMMISSION AMENDMENT REGULATION

     Filed:  June 23, 1999

Made by the Lieutenant Governor in Council (O.C. 269/99) pursuant to
section 602.02 of the Municipal Government Act.


1   The Lac Ste. Anne Regional Waste Management Services Commission
Regulation (AR 32/94) is amended by this Regulation.


2   The title of the Regulation is repealed and the following is
substituted:

     HIGHWAY 43 EAST WASTE
     COMMISSION REGULATION


3   The following is added after section 1:

Change of name
     1.1(1)  The name of the Commission is changed to the Highway 43 East
Waste Commission.

     (2)  The change of name does not affect any obligation, right, action
or property of the Commission.

     (3)  The use of the old name of the Commission in any proceedings,
agreements, notices or documents after the name has been changed does not
affect the validity of those  proceedings, agreements, notices or
documents.


     Alberta Regulation 141/99

     Dangerous Goods Transportation and Handling Act

     TRANSPORTATION OF DANGEROUS GOODS
     CONTROL AMENDMENT REGULATION

     Filed:  June 23, 1999

Made by the Lieutenant Governor in Council (O.C. 270/99) pursuant to
section 31 of the Dangerous Goods Transportation and Handling Act.


1   The Transportation of Dangerous Goods Control Regulation (AR 157/97) is
amended by this Regulation.


2   The title of the Regulation is repealed and the following is
substituted:

     DANGEROUS GOODS TRANSPORTATION
     AND HANDLING REGULATION


3   In this Regulation, "Federal Regulations" has the same meaning as in
the principal regulation being amended.


4   Section 3 is repealed.


5   Section 4, as it deems a subsection (7) to be included in the Federal
Regulations, is amended by adding ", so long as section 7.33.1.5 applies to
them" after "section 7.33.1.5(1)".


6   Section 5, as it deems section 7.33.1.5 to be included in the Federal
Regulations, is amended

     (a)  in respect of section 7.33.1.5(2) by adding the following after
clause (a):

               (a.1)     the old large container

                         (i)  is only used for the handling, offering
for transport or transporting of dangerous goods in a class other than
those included in Class 8, (Corrosive liquids), or 

                         (ii) is a vacuum tank, 

     (b)  by adding the following after section 7.33.1.5(3):

          (4)  This section ceases to have any force

               (a)  subject to clause (c), as respects an old large
container manufactured before July 1, 1990, at the end of June 30, 2005, 

               (b)  subject to clause (c), as respects an old large
container manufactured after June 30, 1990, 15 years after the end of the
day of its manufacture, and

               (c)  as respects an old large container being tested or
inspected pursuant to section 7.33.1.5(2)(b) as an old large container for
the first time, at the end of 1999, 

          or at such earlier date as the old large container in question
complies with section 7.33.1.


7   Section 6 is amended 

     (a)  by repealing clause (a);

     (b)  in clause (b) by striking out "12(1)" and substituting "18". 


8   Section 24 is amended 

     (a)  in clause (b) by striking out "6(3)" and substituting "10(1)";

     (b)  by repealing clause (c). 


9   Section 25 is repealed. 


10   This Regulation comes into force on June 30, 1999.


     Alberta Regulation 142/99

     Highway Traffic Act

     BUS SAFETY AMENDMENT REGULATION

     Filed:  June 23, 1999

Made by the Lieutenant Governor in Council (O.C. 271/99) pursuant to
sections 7, 8 and 12 of the Highway Traffic Act.


1   The Bus Safety Regulation (AR 235/82) is amended by this Regulation.


2   Section 1 is amended

     (a)  by repealing clause (b) and substituting the following:

               (b)  "bus" means a Type A, Type B, Type C or Type D
school bus as described in the CSA Std;

     (b)  in clause (d) by striking out "D250-M1985" and substituting
"D250-98 "School Buses"".


3   The following is added after section 23:

     PART 4

     ADDITIONAL REQUIREMENTS FOR HANDI-BUSES

     23.1(1)  In this Part and in Schedules 5 and 6, 

               (a)  "anchor point" means a point or area on a handi-bus
to which anchorage is attached;

               (b)  "anchorage" means the means of attachment for the
purpose of transferring forces between a mobility aid and a handi-bus
through a MASOR system;

               (c)  "automatic occupant protection system" means a
protective restraining system for an occupant of a vehicle that does not
require any deliberate action on the part of the occupant to be activated
when the occupant enters, occupies or leaves the vehicle;

               (d)  "belt" means a length of energy-absorbing webbing
material used as part of an occupant restraint system;

               (e)  "CMVSS" means Canadian Motor Vehicle Safety
Standard;

               (f)  "CSA" means Canadian Standards Association;

               (g)  "forward-facing" means facing the front of the
handi-bus with the mobility aid reference plane within 10ø of the
longitudinal axis of the vehicle;

               (h)  "handi-bus" means a Type A, Type B, Type C or Type
D school bus as described in the CSA Std that is used primarily for the
purpose of providing transportation for compensation for persons with
physical disabilities, but does not include

                         (i)  a livery within the meaning of the
Motor Transport Act,

                         (ii) a school bus within the meaning of the
School Bus Operation Regulation (AR 437/86), or

                         (iii)     a transit bus owned and operated by a
municipality when the transit bus is being operated within the boundaries
of that municipality;

               (i)  "mobility aid" means a device used to facilitate
the transport, in a normal seated orientation, of a person with a physical
disability, and includes

                         (i)  a manual or powered wheelchair, and

                         (ii) a scooter;

               (j)  "mobility aid occupant" means an occupant of a
handi-bus who uses a mobility aid;

               (k)  "mobility aid securement and occupant restraint 
system" or "MASOR system" means a device or system intended 

                         (i)  to secure a mobility aid in a
handi-bus, and 

                         (ii) to restrain an occupant seated in a
mobility aid during a frontal vehicle impact;

               (l)  "occupant restraint" means a device or system
intended to restrain the occupant seated in a mobility aid during a frontal
vehicle impact, and includes

                         (i)  a lap belt for restraining movement of
the pelvis (referred to as a Type 1 occupant restraint),

                         (ii) a combination pelvis and upper torso
restraint (referred to as a Type 2 occupant restraint), and

                         (iii)     an upper torso restraint for use only
in conjunction with a pelvis restraint to form a Type 2 occupant restraint
(referred to as a Type 2A occupant restraint);

               (m)  "postural support belt" means a length of webbing
material used to control either the upper or lower torso of a mobility aid
occupant, but not to restrain the occupant during a frontal vehicle impact;

               (n)  "seat belt assembly" means any strap, webbing or
similar device designated to secure a person in a handi-bus in order to
mitigate the results of an accident, and includes

                         (i)  all necessary buckles and other
fasteners and all hardware, and

                         (ii) a belt assembly that is part of an
automatic occupant protection system;

               (o)  "securement point" means a load bearing strong
point on a mobility aid intended for use with a MASOR system;

               (p)  "webbing" means a narrow fabric woven with
continuous filling yarns that has finished edges.

     (2)  For the purposes of subsection (1)(h), transportation shall be
considered to be provided for compensation if a charge is imposed directly
for the provision of the transportation.

     23.2   The requirements of this Part and Schedules 5 and 6 in respect
of handi-buses are in addition to any other provisions of this Regulation
that apply to handi-buses as buses.

     23.3   The owner of a handi-bus shall keep and maintain the handi-bus
and all its equipment in a condition of conformity with the standards and
specifications prescribed in Schedules 5 and 6.

     23.4   The owner of a handi-bus shall ensure that it is inspected and
tested semi-annually at an inspection station by an inspection mechanic to
determine whether the handi-bus meets the standards set out in Schedule 6.

     23.5   Sections  23.3 and 23.4 do not apply in respect of a handi-bus
that was purchased or first used as a handi-bus before September 1, 1999.

     23.6(1)  Sections 14 to 23 apply, with necessary modifications, in
respect of the inspection, testing and operation of handi-buses for the
purposes of this Part.

     (2)  Inspections and testing for the purposes of this Part may be
carried out at the same time as inspections and testing for the purposes of
Part 3 are carried out, and one inspection certificate and inspection decal
may be issued for the purposes of both Parts.


4   The following Schedules are added after Schedule 4:


     SCHEDULE 5

     1   A handi-bus must be equipped with a webbed belt MASOR system for
each mobility aid occupant. 

     2(1)  The securement system for a MASOR system

               (a)  must consist of 2 belts on the front and 2 belts on
the back for attachment to the mobility aid securement points, and

               (b)  must incorporate a means of adjustment to remove
slack from each mobility aid securement point.

     (2)  Securement for a mobility aid must be independent of the
occupant restraint.  

     (3)  Components of a MASOR system must be constructed

               (a)  to minimize the possibility of inadvertent release,
and

               (b)  so that any parts, such as pins or fasteners, that
are required for proper operation are secured.

     (4)  Threaded fasteners of an occupant restraint must be provided
with a means of preventing them from vibrating loose.  
     (5)  Mechanisms for the release of a mobility aid occupant from an 
occupant restraint must be designed and used so that they do not require
engagement or disengagement of threaded fasteners.

     (6)  A MASOR system anchor point must be constructed to permit
installation at no more than 16 mm above the floor of the handi-bus.

     (7)  Devices provided to adjust a MASOR system to fit a mobility aid
or an occupant must be capable of being operated without the use of tools.

     (8)  The hardware components of a MASOR system that attach to the
mobility aid must be designed and used so that they will not disengage from
the securement point if any portion of the system goes slack.

     (9)  The hardware components of a MASOR system must be installed in a
manner that does not involve

               (a)  removal of material from the mobility aid frame by
means such as cutting or drilling,

               (b)  deformation of the mobility aid, or

               (c)  the use of an adhesive process.

     (10)  Hardware components of a MASOR system that, under normal use,
make contact with a mobility aid occupant or are handled by an attendant
must be constructed without burrs or sharp edges.

     (11)  The surface of each securement end fitting must be smooth, and
corners and edges must be free of burrs and sharp edges.

     (12)  The webbing that forms part of an adjustment mechanism must
have a grip that is at least 25 mm long when the adjustment mechanism is
fully opened.

     (13)  No part of a MASOR system may be attached to any part of an
emergency exit.

     3   Batteries used to power a mobility aid must be securely attached
to the mobility aid.

     4(1)  The floor space for each mobility aid must be adequate for the
MASOR system being used.

     (2)  A handi-bus must be equipped so that, except for MASOR system
components, there is no part of the fixed vehicle structure within the
clear zone shown in

               (a)  Figure 1 of this Schedule, where a Type 2 occupant
restraint is used, or

               (b)  Figure 2 of this Schedule, where a Type 1 occupant
restraint is used.

     (3)  Each anchor point for the MASOR system must be designed to be
capable of withstanding a forward and rearward static loading of 1600 kg.

     (4)  A Type 2 occupant restraint must meet the requirements of CSA
Standard Z605 Mobility Aid Securement and Occupant Restraint (MASOR)
Systems for Motor Vehicles.

     (5)  A Type 2 occupant restraint must be provided at each outboard
mobility aid position.

     (6)  A Type 1 or Type 2 occupant restraint must be provided at each
inboard mobility aid position.

     (7)  Where a Type 2A occupant restraint is used on a mobility aid,
the MASOR system must

               (a)  pass over either the left or right shoulder of the
mobility aid occupant, or

               (b)  be marked to indicate the intended orientation with
respect to the right or left shoulder of the mobility aid occupant if the
shoulder restraint is designed for only one shoulder.

     (8)  All seat belt assembly components must meet the requirements of
CMVSS 209 Seat Belt Assemblies.

     (9)  Anchor points for the MASOR system must meet the strength
requirements of CMVSS 210 Seat Belt Assembly Anchorages, and the upper
torso anchor point must be located within the zone shown in Figure 3 of
this Schedule.

     (10)  If the mobility aid securement system and the occupant
restraint system share a common anchor point, the systems must meet the
strength requirements of CMVSS 210 Seat Belt Assembly Anchorages.

     5(1)  The lift in a handi-bus must be secured to the bus in
accordance with the lift manufacturer's instructions.

     (2)  A lift must be capable of functioning in an ambient temperature
of between -40øC and +40øC.

     (3)  A lift must be designed to have a minimum lifting capacity of
2765 kg.

     (4)  A powered closing lift platform must be designed so that it will
not fold when there is a weight of 35 kg or more on the centre of the
platform.

     6(1)  A service ramp must be designed for a load of at least 340 kg
distributed evenly over a length of 1100 mm and the full width of the ramp
half-way up the ramp.

     (2)  The ramp must be capable of functioning in an ambient
temperature of between -40øC and +40øC.

     7   The wheel housing of a handi-bus must

               (a)  be constructed to allow for tire removal and
servicing,

               (b)  be constructed of sheet metal with a minimum
thickness of 1.5 mm, or of other material of equivalent strength, and

               (c)  be attached to floor sheets in a manner that
provides a seal against water, dust and fumes.

     8   The padding on stanchions, guard rails, exposed stationary parts
of lifts and ramps and grabbers and handles (other than those at an
entrance to the handi-bus) must consist of the following or other material
that offers equivalent protection:

               (a)  a closed-cell urethane foam, rubber or vinyl type
material that is at least 5 mm thick;

               (b)  extruded polyvinyl chloride tubing having a minimum
nominal thickness of 13 mm.

     9   The heating system of a handi-bus must be capable of maintaining
the air temperature in the bus at at least 16øC, measured at a point
between 400 mm and 450 mm above floor level at the centre of the bus with
all doors and windows closed when

               (a)  the engine of the bus is idling,

               (b)  the ambient air velocity is 5 km/h, and

               (c)  the outside temperature is -18øC.

     10   A handi-bus must meet the requirements of CMVSS 220 Rollover
Protection.

     11   The ceiling and walls of a handi-bus must be insulated to reduce
sound and vibration and to reduce heat transfer.

     12   If an emergency exit is provided in the roof of a handi-bus, it
must comply with CMVSS 217.

     Figure 1
     Clear Zone Around a Mobility Aid Position
     when an Upper Torso Restraint is Used



               Side View Front View     


     Figure 2
     Clear Zone Around a Mobility Aid Position
     when an Upper Torso Restraint is Not Used



               Side View Front View     


     Figure 3
     Location of Anchor Points for an Upper Torso Restraint Belt



               Side View Front View     

R= Distance between the seating reference plane and upper anchor point


     SCHEDULE 6

     1   All chassis apparatus terminals on a handi-bus must be readily
accessible without dismantling or disassembling chassis components, so that
the combined body and chassis electrical system can be serviced.

     2   The exhaust system of a handi-bus must be located so that exhaust
will be directed away from the body of the bus and from loading areas.

     3(1)  On a frame-type handi-bus, the chassis frame must extend to the
rear edge of the rear body cross member and the body must be attached to
the chassis frame in such a manner as to prevent shifting or separation of
the body from the chassis under severe operating conditions.

     (2)  The front bumper of a handi-bus must extend beyond the
forward-most part of the body and to the outer edge of the front body
panels to ensure fender and body protection.

     (3)  The rear bumper of a handi-bus must be attached directly to the
chassis frame in a manner that permits it to be removed.

     (4)  The body of a handi-bus must be equipped with windows on both
sides of the passenger compartment.

     4  A handi-bus must be equipped with service entrances as follows:

               (a)  there must be an ambulatory entrance door on the
right side of the bus, and where only one mobility aid entrance is
provided, it must not be on the left side of the bus;

               (b)  the opening and closing device for the ambulatory
entrance door must be located so that it is under the control of the
driver;

               (c)  if a hand lever is used to open and close the
ambulatory entrance door, it must be designed so that no parts may come
together in a way that might crush or shear fingers;

               (d)  power operated ambulatory entrance doors must be
designed so they can be operated manually;

               (e)  on a split-type door, if one section opens inward
and the other opens outward, the door must be designed so that the front
section opens outward;

               (f)  vertical closing edges of a split-type or
jack-knife type door must be equipped with flexible material to minimize
the possibility of injury to fingers;

               (g)  a service door must be provided with a means of
securing it against unintended closing during loading or unloading of
passengers, and an ambulatory entrance door must be provided with a safety
latch on the door to prevent unintended closing if the door grab handles
are used;

               (h)  where a service door opening is less than 1980 mm
in height, it must be padded at the top interior edge;

               (i)  a service door must be provided with a drip
moulding above the door opening to direct water to either side of the
opening;

               (j)  a mobility aid entrance must have the following
minimum dimensions, with lift installed:

                         (i)  812 mm in width;

                         (ii) 1400 mm in height.

     5   Steps on a handi-bus must meet the following requirements:

               (a)  the step covering material must be skid-resistant;

               (b)  there must be a yellow or white stripe, which is in
contrast to the background, not less than 38 mm and not more than 75 mm
wide, on the leading edge of the horizontal surface of each step and on the
floor surface at the step entrance;

               (c)  the dimensions of steps at the ambulatory entrance
door must be as follows:

                         (i)  the height of the first step must not
be higher than 380 mm from ground level;

                         (ii) the height of steps in the bus must not
exceed 230 mm;

                         (iii)     the variation in the height of steps in
the bus must not exceed 25 mm;

                         (iv) the depth of each step (front to back)
must be at least 215 mm;

                         (v)  the width of each step (side to side)
must be at least 400 mm;

               (d)  all steps must be of the same depth, except for
auxiliary steps;

               (e)  step nosing at the floor level must be flush with
the floor.

     6   If an emergency exit is provided in the roof of a handi-bus, it
must be designed so that it is operable from the exterior of the handi-bus.

     7   A handi-bus must be equipped with

               (a)  a light at the lift door that illuminates the lift
area and operates automatically when the lift door opens, and

               (b)  a light above or beside each passenger access door
that illuminates the steps and operates automatically when the door opens.

     8   Floor covering material must be skid-resistant.

     9   All passenger seating and seats must comply with the following:

               (a)  in the case of mobility aid seating, seats must be
forward or rearward facing;

               (b)  in the case of ambulatory passenger seating:

                         (i)  the distance from the front of each
seat back to the back of the seat ahead, measured on a horizontal plane at
the centre of the seat cushion's surface, must be at least 685 mm;

                         (ii) the minimum rump width allowed for each
person must be at least 380 mm;

                         (iii)     the height of the seat cushion above
the floor must be not less than 400 mm nor more than 480 mm;

                         (iv) the depth of the seat must be not less
than 380 mm nor more than 430 mm;

                         (v)  seat cushions must be level or sloped
downwards toward the seat back;

                         (vi) seat backs must be at least 380 mm
high;

               (c)  in the case of all passenger seating,

                         (i)  where a passageway is required for
movement of a mobility aid, there must be a clear width of at least 760 mm
between fixed objects, and

                         (ii) for each seat designated for use by a
person with a physical disability, there must be at least a Type 1 occupant
restraint provided;

               (d)  grab bars and handles must have a diameter of not
more than 75 mm;

               (e)  the interior of the handi-bus must be free of all
non-essential projections that could cause injury, and there must be an
interior lining on the ceiling and walls of the handi-bus;

               (f)  any of the following structures that could cause
injury to passengers in their seated position must be equipped with
non-rotating padding:

                         (i)  stanchions;

                         (ii) grab bars and handles, except those at
an entrance to the handi-bus;

                         (iii)     guard rails;

                         (iv) exposed stationary parts of lifts and
ramps.

     10   The location of emergency equipment must be clearly marked if it
is not visible.

     11   A handi-bus must be equipped with seat belt cutters.

     12(1)  A lift platform must be at least 760 mm in width and 1115 mm
in length.

     (2)  The lift platform must meet the following requirements:

               (a)  the platform must have a skid-resistant surface;

               (b)  the sides of the platform must be fitted with
guards that are not less than 25 mm nor more than 50 mm in height and that
extend the full length on each side of the platform, and the outside of the
guards must be clearly marked with yellow or white reflective material,
which is in contrast to the background;

               (c)  the platform must be equipped with a roll stop at
the outer edge, and the roll stop must be

                         (i)  approximately in the vertical position
when the platform is in the lifting and lowering mode,

                         (ii) a minimum of 100 mm in height in the
raised position,

                         (iii)     clearly marked with yellow and black
reflective diagonal strips on the outside of the roll stop, and

                         (iv) designed so that it retracts when the
platform reaches the lower limit of travel;

               (d)  where the platform extends outside the body of the
handi-bus, the platform must be equipped with a handrail on each side that
is not less than 635 mm nor more than 865 mm from the platform and remains
at a constant height while the platform is in operation;

               (e)  where the platform extends outside the body of the
handi-bus, the platform must be equipped with a restraining device that is
positioned not less than 623 mm nor more than 865 mm above the platform
when the platform is in the operating position, to prevent the mobility aid
from rolling off the platform.

     (3)  Exposed moving parts of the lift, such as chains, sprockets and
gears, must be equipped with adequate guards.

     (4)  The lift controls must meet the following requirements:

               (a)  there must be only one control and it must be
designed to prevent accidental operation of the lift, and must be stored in
a safe place when not being used by the operator;

               (b)  the control must be in a location that permits the
operator to stand anywhere around the edge of the platform when operating
the lift;

               (c)  the control must be designed to be operable using
one hand only, and must use continuous pressure operation;

               (d)  the control must be equipped with an interlock
device designed to prevent operation of the lift if the restraining device
is not coupled, the parking brake is not engaged or the transmission gear
shift is not secured in the "park" position;

               (e)  the control must be equipped with a manual override
device to enable the operator to raise and lower the platform, with or
without load, and return the lift to the stowed position in the case of a
power failure;

               (f)  the manual override device must be accessible for
use by the operator, and a notice outlining detailed step-by-step
instructions for the operating procedure must be posted alongside the
actuation point;

               (g)  a powered closing lift must be designed so that it
will fold only when it is in the "up" position.

     (5)  A notice or pictogram must be posted on the lift, advising of
the caution to stand clear, and the lettering must be

               (a)  at least 25 mm in height in the case of a notice
and at least 50 mm in height if the lettering is accompanied by a
pictogram, and

               (b)  in a colour that contrasts with the background.

     13(1)  A service ramp on a handi-bus must meet the requirements of
this section.

     (2)  This section does not apply to emergency exit ramps.

     (3)  The maximum gradient of a service ramp is 1 in 4.

     (4)  A service ramp must be at least 760 mm wide.

     (5)  The surface of a service ramp must be made of skid-resistant
material.

     (6)  A service ramp must be fitted with guards that are not less than
25 mm nor more than 50 mm in height and the outside of the guards must be
clearly marked with yellow or white reflective material, which is in
contrast to the background.

     (7)  A power operated service ramp must meet the following
requirements:

               (a)  exposed moving parts, such as chains, sprockets and
gears must be equipped with adequate guards;

               (b)  the control for the ramp must meet the following
requirements:

                         (i)  there must be only one control and it
must be designed to prevent accidental operation of the ramp and must be
stored in a safe place when not being used by the operator;

                         (ii) the control must be equipped with an
interlock device designed to prevent operation of the ramp if the parking
brake is not engaged or the transmission gear shift is not secured in the
"park" position;

                         (iii)     the control must be equipped with a
manual override device to enable the operator to raise and lower the ramp,
with or without load, and return the ramp to the stowed position in the
case of a power failure;

                         (iv) the manual override device must be
accessible for use by the operator, and a notice outlining detailed
step-by-step instructions for the hand-moving procedure must be posted
alongside the actuation point.

     (8)  If the ramp is stored in the passenger compartment, it must be
secured in accordance with the ramp manufacturer's instructions.

     14(1)  A handi-bus must have affixed to it at the following locations
on the handi-bus an accessibility symbol as shown in Figure 1 of this
Schedule:

               (a)  on the rear of the handi-bus, left of centre;

               (b)  on the front of the handi-bus, right of centre;

               (c)  on both sides of the body of the handi-bus, just
behind the driver's station.

     (2)  The accessibility symbol must be white on a blue background.


     Figure 1
     Accessibility Symbol






5   This Regulation comes into force on September 1, 1999.


     ------------------------------

     Alberta Regulation 143/99

     Public Sector Pension Plans Act

     UNIVERSITIES ACADEMIC PENSION PLAN
     AMENDMENT REGULATION

     Filed:  June 30, 1999

Approved by the Universities Academic Pension Board pursuant to sections
5(2) and 9(6) of Schedule 3 of the Public Sector Pesnion Plans Act.


1   The Universities Academic Pension Plan (AR 370/93) is amended by this
Regulation.


2   Section 13 is amended

     (a)  in subsection (1),

               (i)  in clause (a) by striking out "5.0" and
substituting "5.4";

               (ii) in clause (b) by striking out "7.4" and
substituting "7.8";

     (b)  in subsection (1.1),

               (i)  in clause (a) by striking out "5.5" and
substituting "5.9";

               (ii) in clause (b) by striking out "7.9" and
substituting "8.3".


3   Section 15 is amended

     (a)  in subsection (1),

               (i)  in clause (a) by striking out "6.0" and
substituting "6.4";

               (ii) in clause (b) by striking out "8.4" and
substituting "8.8";

     (b)  in subsection (1.1),

               (i)  in clause (a) by striking out "5.5" and
substituting "5.9";

               (ii) in clause (b) by striking out "7.9" and
substituting "8.3".

4   Section 16(2) is amended by striking out "July 1, 1997 is  0.875%" and
substituting "July 1, 1999 is 0.475%".


5   This Regulation comes into force on July 1, 1999.